Is the patient who is on dialysis twice a week obliged to observe fasting? Is his fasting on the days he is on dialysis considered valid or not?

Praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds.

Dialysis invalidates fasting because of the nutritional fluid used in that procedure, as pointed by specialized doctors, in addition to causing bodies to enter the stomach. Therefore, it is recommended that the patient who had undergone dialysis to observe fasting for the rest of that day, if he is able to, and make up for it after Ramadan. However, if the doctor told him that fasting, at any time, would damage his health, then he must break his fast and pay a ransom against every missed day. We pray that Allah blesses this person with recovery. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

Is it permissible for a woman to inherit the same share as of a man?

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all if his family and companions.                                                                                                                                                                                                 Thorough studies in which woman's right to inherit according to law of distribution of estate indicates that there are more than one case by which women inherit the same as man and sometimes much more, or to shed the lights regarding the right to inherit while men who share the same family line with her don't have the right to inherit because the deceased has closer ties of kinship with her. In addition to four cases whereas woman inherits half share in comparison with man's share although they had the same degree of kinship with the deceased. For further details as regards the latter cases, kindly refer to elaborated jurisprudence books. And Allah Knows Best.

Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?

When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).

Is it allowed for me to donate a flat to each of my children except one considering that the tuition fees I paid for the latter`s university study are equal to the price of the flat? In other words, he has received his share and this is why I`m donating a flat to my other children?