Is the patient who is on dialysis twice a week obliged to observe fasting? Is his fasting on the days he is on dialysis considered valid or not?
Praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds.
Dialysis invalidates fasting because of the nutritional fluid used in that procedure, as pointed by specialized doctors, in addition to causing bodies to enter the stomach. Therefore, it is recommended that the patient who had undergone dialysis to observe fasting for the rest of that day, if he is able to, and make up for it after Ramadan. However, if the doctor told him that fasting, at any time, would damage his health, then he must break his fast and pay a ransom against every missed day. We pray that Allah blesses this person with recovery. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is a wife considered sinful if she asked for divorce because her husband married another woman?
A second marriage is lawful, and so it is impermissible for you to ask for divorce because of that. If you are certain that you won`t be able to deliver Allah`s rights and those of your husband`s , then it is permissible for you to ask for Khul`a (Divorce on the demand of the wife). However, you should exercise patience since after difficulties, there is easiness by the will of Allah.
I am a disabled woman who has vaginal discharges and can`t control her urine. Therefore, I combine prayers. Is that permissible?
All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all his family and companions.
According to the Hanbali doctrine, it is permissible for the sick to combine prayers. In your case (Asker), it is better that you delay the noon prayer until a few minutes before the afternoon prayer in order to minimize the time span between the two and perform each alone. In addition, you can do the same with sunset and evening prayers. Finally, we ask Allah to bless you with recovery. And Allah Knows Best.
What is the ruling o associations (Whereas a person who have money buys a commodity for a person and and gets a profit on it)?
It is permissible for a person to buy a commodity for someone's else and have a profit/loss on it
