I had my menstrual period at the beginning of Ramadan for six days, then it ended and I became pure. After four days, I started noticing some blood again, which has lasted for two days now, but it is not as heavy as menstrual blood. Is this blood considered menstrual blood, and what is the ruling regarding my prayers, fasting, and reading the Quran during this period?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad.
The minimum duration of menstruation is one day and one night, and its maximum is fifteen days. Any blood beyond this period is considered irregular bleeding (Istihada). Since the bleeding did not exceed fifteen days, it is considered menstrual blood within the regular cycle. Therefore, you should not pray or fast until the bleeding stops and the signs of purity appear. If the bleeding stops before fifteen days from when it first started, then all the blood you saw is considered menstrual blood, and you must make up the fasts, but not the prayers. If it exceeds fifteen days, then the first six days are menstrual blood, and the blood that follows is considered irregular bleeding. Your prayers and fasting are valid, and there is no issue with them. And Allah Knows Best."
*This answer was updated on [18/5/2023].
Is it permissible for a woman to wear underwear while performing Umrah?
Yes, it is permissible for a woman to wear underwear while performing Umrah. This is because she should keep her regular clothes that cover all her body while being in a state of Ihram (ritual consecration) for Hajj, or Umrah. However, she should uncover her face and hands, but it is permissible for her to let her head-covering garment drape from her head down over her face when non-Mahram (i.e., marriageable) men pass by her. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible for the mother to give her children from the Zakah (obligatory charity) of her money?
It is permissible for the mother to give her children from the Zakah of her money if they are Zakah-eligible recipients, and she isn`t obliged to provide for them.
Is it true that whatever is dry is pure even if there was impurity on it?
The impure material object does not soil (make impure) anything else unless the impurity is wet and transferable. But, if the impurity is dry or non-transferable, then there is no problem. Fuqaha has stated that: There is no disagreement between Muslim scholars that when a dry impurity touches something dry it does not make the latter impure.
