عربي
Home


Articles

Articles

People`s Honor is inviolable
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 14-05-2023

People`s Honor is inviolable

 

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions. Allah says {what means}: " Say: the things that my Lord hath indeed forbidden are: shameful deeds, whether open or secret; sins and trespasses against truth or reason; assigning of partners to God, for which He hath given no authority; and saying things about God of which ye have no knowledge." {Al-`Araf, 33}.

The Message of Islam delivered to humanity through Prophet Mohammad (PBUH) steers societies and civilizations to the straight path, spreads love and mercy, fights all forms of transgression and destruction from which Islam is innocent.

Amongst the higher objectives of Sharia (Maqasi) is preserving honor and lineage as well as building family on sound foundations according to the rules of true Sharia, which made marriage a permanent sacred contract and a solemn covenant to establish the family and protect it against transgression and corruption.

Islam considered violating the honor and property of Muslims as a grave sin that entails penalties in this life and the next, in addition to considering this an act of injustice to self and society. Indeed! Allah doesn`t love those who do wrong.

Part of the affliction that we are noticing nowadays is that some who claim to be scholars use social media to launch twisted calls that involve twisting Sharia texts and taking them out of their context to serve certain purposes that don`t lie in the best interest of the Muslim nation. Rather, they distort the luminous image of Islam, twist its noble objectives, and spread discord and dissension.

One of these corrupt calls is the call for establishing families without the valid marriage contract that adheres to the teachings of Sharia. This is knowing that Sharia presented family provisions in details to hinder the mischievous or the ignorant from tampering with them. 

It is the duty of the Iftaa` Department to warn against the perverted views that are formulated in the shape of Fatwa. It stresses that these don`t represent the true nature of Fatwa nor the considerable opinions of the learned men of the faith. This is because they don`t rest on correct evidence, aren`t issued by the considerable and qualified scholars of Fatwa and they include rulings that are corrupt and contradict with the higher objectives of Sharia.

We pray that Allah bless this country with peace and security along with the rest of the Muslim countries.

Article Number [ Previous | Next ]

Read for Author




Comments


Captcha


Warning: this window is not dedicated to receive religious questions, but to comment on topics published for the benefit of the site administrators—and not for publication. We are pleased to receive religious questions in the section "Send Your Question". So we apologize to readers for not answering any questions through this window of "Comments" for the sake of work organization. Thank you.




Summarized Fatawaa

What are the Sharia consequences when the sacrificial time for the uḍḥiyyah comes to an end?

 
 
 
 
 
 

 
In the Name of Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
If the sun sets on the final day of Tashriq (the 13th of Dhu al-Hijjah) and the Udhiyah (sacrificial animal) has not yet been slaughtered, its designated time has expired. Should a person slaughter it after this point, it will not be counted as an Udhiyah.
 
However, if the sacrifice was a vowed one (Mandhurah), they are strictly obligated to slaughter it as a makeup act (Qada’), and its meat must be distributed entirely according to the rules governing vowed sacrifices.
 
It is stated in Bushra al-Karim (p. 702): "If one slaughters after sunset on the final day [of Tashriq]... it does not count as an Udhiyah, unless it was a vowed sacrifice, in which case it is fulfilled as a makeup act (Qada’)." And Allah the Almighty Knows Best.

If a traveler settles or a sick person recovers while fasting, is it permissible for them to break their fast?

● If a sick person starts the day fasting and then recovers during the day, they must complete their fast.
● If a traveler starts the day fasting and then settles (returns or stops traveling) during the day, they must also complete their fast.
● It is forbidden for both of them to break their fast because the concession (rukhsah) is no longer valid once its reason disappears.

What is the ruling on praying in congregation at the mosque?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
Congregational prayer (Salat al-Jama‘ah) is a communal obligation (Fard Kifayah) for resident men regarding the performance of the prescribed (obligatory) prayers. For men, praying in congregation at the mosque is better than praying elsewhere, such as at home. On the authority of Abdullah bin Umar, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ said: 'Prayer in congregation is twenty-seven degrees more excellent than the prayer of a person alone' (Reported by Bukhari & Muslim). Furthermore, on the authority of Abu Hurayrah, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ said: 'Shall I not tell you that by which Allah erases sins and raises ranks?' They said, 'Of course, O Messenger of Allah.' He said: 'Performing wudu thoroughly despite difficulties, taking many steps toward the mosques, and waiting for the next prayer after the prayer; that is your Ribat (steadfastness)' (Narrated by Muslim).
 
As for a woman, her praying in congregation at home is better for her than in the mosque, according to the saying of our Master the Prophet ﷺ: 'Do not prevent your women from attending the mosques, but their homes are better for them' (Narrated by Abu Dawood). Young boys should be encouraged to attend the mosques and congregational prayers so they may become accustomed to them. And Allah the Exalted knows best.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

See More