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People`s Honor is inviolable
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 14-05-2023

People`s Honor is inviolable

 

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions. Allah says {what means}: " Say: the things that my Lord hath indeed forbidden are: shameful deeds, whether open or secret; sins and trespasses against truth or reason; assigning of partners to God, for which He hath given no authority; and saying things about God of which ye have no knowledge." {Al-`Araf, 33}.

The Message of Islam delivered to humanity through Prophet Mohammad (PBUH) steers societies and civilizations to the straight path, spreads love and mercy, fights all forms of transgression and destruction from which Islam is innocent.

Amongst the higher objectives of Sharia (Maqasi) is preserving honor and lineage as well as building family on sound foundations according to the rules of true Sharia, which made marriage a permanent sacred contract and a solemn covenant to establish the family and protect it against transgression and corruption.

Islam considered violating the honor and property of Muslims as a grave sin that entails penalties in this life and the next, in addition to considering this an act of injustice to self and society. Indeed! Allah doesn`t love those who do wrong.

Part of the affliction that we are noticing nowadays is that some who claim to be scholars use social media to launch twisted calls that involve twisting Sharia texts and taking them out of their context to serve certain purposes that don`t lie in the best interest of the Muslim nation. Rather, they distort the luminous image of Islam, twist its noble objectives, and spread discord and dissension.

One of these corrupt calls is the call for establishing families without the valid marriage contract that adheres to the teachings of Sharia. This is knowing that Sharia presented family provisions in details to hinder the mischievous or the ignorant from tampering with them. 

It is the duty of the Iftaa` Department to warn against the perverted views that are formulated in the shape of Fatwa. It stresses that these don`t represent the true nature of Fatwa nor the considerable opinions of the learned men of the faith. This is because they don`t rest on correct evidence, aren`t issued by the considerable and qualified scholars of Fatwa and they include rulings that are corrupt and contradict with the higher objectives of Sharia.

We pray that Allah bless this country with peace and security along with the rest of the Muslim countries.

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on a woman who learns of her divorce or her husband's death after her *ʿiddah* has ended? And does the *ʿiddah* of a woman who abandoned mourning (*iḥdād*) for the whole period of the *ʿiddah*, or part of it, still end, even though she knew that abandoning it is forbidden?**

 

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
The waiting period of a widow who is not pregnant is four months and ten days, based on the saying of Allah Almighty (which means): “And those of you who die and leave wives behind, they shall wait concerning themselves for four months and ten days” [al-Baqarah/234]. If she is pregnant, her ʿiddah ends with the delivery of her child. The ʿiddah is calculated by lunar months and begins from the date of death.
If her ʿiddah ends before she learns of her husband’s death, or of his divorcing her, she does not observe the ʿiddah upon learning of it, because her ʿiddah has already ended.
It is stated in al-Bayān fī Madhhab al-Imām al-Shāfiʿī (Vol.11/p.41), one of the books of the Shāfiʿī school: “If a man divorces his wife, or dies while he is absent from her, her ʿiddah is from the time of the divorce or from the time of death. If she does not know of the divorce or the death until her ʿiddah period has ended, then her ʿiddah has ended. If she learns of it before the end of the ʿiddah period, she completes her ʿiddah counting from the time of the divorce or death.”
As for a woman who abandoned mourning throughout the ʿiddah while knowing that it is forbidden, she is sinful, although her ʿiddah has nonetheless ended. And Allah Almighty knows best.

Is it permissible for someone who is unable to fast to pay the fidyah (ransom/compensation payment) to himself, due to his own poverty?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is not permissible, nor does it fulfill the obligation, for a sick person who is currently and permanently unable to fast to pay the fidyah (ransom/compensation payment) to himself, since it is a financial obligation owed by him, established as a standing debt upon him — much like any other debt he owes. If he were to pay it to himself, it would not thereby be discharged. So if he cannot find [anyone eligible to] pay it to, it remains a standing obligation upon him, and is not thereby waived. If Allah, the Mighty and Majestic, later grants him wealth, it becomes obligatory upon him to pay it out to the poor and needy.
Imam al-Khaṭīb ash-Shirbīnī (raḥimahullāh) said: "There is no difference in the obligation of the fidyah between the wealthy and the poor person; its benefit lies in its remaining established as a standing debt upon the poor person [until he is able to pay it] — and this is the more correct position (al-aṣaḥḥ), as indicated by the wording of ar-Rawḍah and its source text." [Mughnī al-Muḥtāj, Vol.2/P.174]
Accordingly: it is not permissible for a Muslim to pay the fidyah to himself while he remains poor. If the sick person is poor, he is not obligated to pay the fidyah immediately, and it remains a standing debt upon him until a time when he has sufficient means and wealth. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is I‘tikaf, and how is it performed?

I‘tikaf is staying in the mosque with the intention of I‘tikaf. It is fulfilled by remaining in the mosque for a period that qualifies as devotion or seclusion (I‘tikaf). It is recommended (Sunnah) for anyone entering the mosque to intend I‘tikaf as long as they remain inside.

I have a date farm, and the dates come in different categories, and within each category there are different sizes. How is zakāh paid on the yield?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
If the yield reaches the niṣāb (the minimum threshold for zakāh to become obligatory) — which is five awsuq (plural of wasq), equivalent to (611) kg — then zakāh becomes obligatory upon it, at a rate of one-tenth ('ushr) if irrigated by rainwater (i.e., naturally, without the use of machinery), or one-twentieth (half of the 'ushr) if irrigated using machinery/equipment.
If the yield of dates consists of different varieties, then zakāh should be paid from each variety according to its respective proportion. If this proves difficult, it is permissible to pay from a medium-quality variety [representative of the average].
It is stated in Ḥāshiyatā Qulyūbī wa ‘Umayrah (Vol.2/P.22): "Different varieties are combined together [for the purpose of calculating the niṣāb] — such as the various types of dates, the various types of raisins, and so on — and zakāh is paid from each type according to its respective proportion. However, if this becomes difficult due to the large number of varieties and the small quantity of each individual type, then zakāh should be paid from a medium-quality variety among them — neither the best nor the worst — out of consideration for both sides [the giver and the poor recipient]. If one goes to the trouble of paying from each variety according to its proportion, this is also permissible." And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

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