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People`s Honor is inviolable
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 14-05-2023

People`s Honor is inviolable

 

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions. Allah says {what means}: " Say: the things that my Lord hath indeed forbidden are: shameful deeds, whether open or secret; sins and trespasses against truth or reason; assigning of partners to God, for which He hath given no authority; and saying things about God of which ye have no knowledge." {Al-`Araf, 33}.

The Message of Islam delivered to humanity through Prophet Mohammad (PBUH) steers societies and civilizations to the straight path, spreads love and mercy, fights all forms of transgression and destruction from which Islam is innocent.

Amongst the higher objectives of Sharia (Maqasi) is preserving honor and lineage as well as building family on sound foundations according to the rules of true Sharia, which made marriage a permanent sacred contract and a solemn covenant to establish the family and protect it against transgression and corruption.

Islam considered violating the honor and property of Muslims as a grave sin that entails penalties in this life and the next, in addition to considering this an act of injustice to self and society. Indeed! Allah doesn`t love those who do wrong.

Part of the affliction that we are noticing nowadays is that some who claim to be scholars use social media to launch twisted calls that involve twisting Sharia texts and taking them out of their context to serve certain purposes that don`t lie in the best interest of the Muslim nation. Rather, they distort the luminous image of Islam, twist its noble objectives, and spread discord and dissension.

One of these corrupt calls is the call for establishing families without the valid marriage contract that adheres to the teachings of Sharia. This is knowing that Sharia presented family provisions in details to hinder the mischievous or the ignorant from tampering with them. 

It is the duty of the Iftaa` Department to warn against the perverted views that are formulated in the shape of Fatwa. It stresses that these don`t represent the true nature of Fatwa nor the considerable opinions of the learned men of the faith. This is because they don`t rest on correct evidence, aren`t issued by the considerable and qualified scholars of Fatwa and they include rulings that are corrupt and contradict with the higher objectives of Sharia.

We pray that Allah bless this country with peace and security along with the rest of the Muslim countries.

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Is it permissible for one to give the Zakah (obligatory charity) to his indebted brother?

It is permissible for one to give the Zakah to his brother if he was indebted, or poor.

What is the ruling on a suitor (khāṭib) going out alone with his fiancée before the marriage contract is concluded?

It is unlawful for a suitor, prior to the marriage contract , to do anything that would be unlawful for any non-maḥram man — including touching his fiancée, being secluded with her (khalwah), or seeing her without her complete sharī‘ah-compliant covering — even after the recitation of al-Fātiḥah (This is a cultural custom to seek Allah's blessing (barakah) and mark mutual consent) and the family's approval [of the engagement]. This is because the engagement, without the formal marriage contract, does not render unlawful matters permissible. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling on reciting the Chapter after Al-Faatihah , and what should a worshiper who forgets it do?

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds.                                                                                                                                                                  Any other part of Qur'an that a worshiper reads after Al-Faatihah during the first and the second Rak`ahs is a Sunnah, and forgetting to do so doesn`t nullify prayer, and doesn`t require performing Sujood As-Sahw (prostration of forgetfulness). And Allah Knows Best.

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