Articles

People`s Honor is inviolable
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 14-05-2023

People`s Honor is inviolable

 

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions. Allah says {what means}: " Say: the things that my Lord hath indeed forbidden are: shameful deeds, whether open or secret; sins and trespasses against truth or reason; assigning of partners to God, for which He hath given no authority; and saying things about God of which ye have no knowledge." {Al-`Araf, 33}.

The Message of Islam delivered to humanity through Prophet Mohammad (PBUH) steers societies and civilizations to the straight path, spreads love and mercy, fights all forms of transgression and destruction from which Islam is innocent.

Amongst the higher objectives of Sharia (Maqasi) is preserving honor and lineage as well as building family on sound foundations according to the rules of true Sharia, which made marriage a permanent sacred contract and a solemn covenant to establish the family and protect it against transgression and corruption.

Islam considered violating the honor and property of Muslims as a grave sin that entails penalties in this life and the next, in addition to considering this an act of injustice to self and society. Indeed! Allah doesn`t love those who do wrong.

Part of the affliction that we are noticing nowadays is that some who claim to be scholars use social media to launch twisted calls that involve twisting Sharia texts and taking them out of their context to serve certain purposes that don`t lie in the best interest of the Muslim nation. Rather, they distort the luminous image of Islam, twist its noble objectives, and spread discord and dissension.

One of these corrupt calls is the call for establishing families without the valid marriage contract that adheres to the teachings of Sharia. This is knowing that Sharia presented family provisions in details to hinder the mischievous or the ignorant from tampering with them. 

It is the duty of the Iftaa` Department to warn against the perverted views that are formulated in the shape of Fatwa. It stresses that these don`t represent the true nature of Fatwa nor the considerable opinions of the learned men of the faith. This is because they don`t rest on correct evidence, aren`t issued by the considerable and qualified scholars of Fatwa and they include rulings that are corrupt and contradict with the higher objectives of Sharia.

We pray that Allah bless this country with peace and security along with the rest of the Muslim countries.

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it permissible for the children of a deceased father to settle his debt from the Zakah (obligatory charity) money due on them?

It is impermissible to use the Zakah of one`s money for settling the debts of the deceased. However, children should settle the debts of their deceased parents out of filial piety. And Allah Knows Best.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Is the father a Mahram (Non-marriageable) to his son`s mother-in-law?

The father is a non-Mahram (Marriageable) to his son`s mother-in-law, so it is impermissible for them to look at each other, or to have a seclusion (Khalwah).

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on following the actions of the imam in prayer and how this following is achieved?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
The follower (ma'mum) is required to follow his imam in the actions of the prayer. This "following" (mutaba'ah) means that the follower performs each action of the prayer after the imam has begun it but before he has finished it. For example, the follower bows (in ruku') after the imam has reached the position of bowing, then rises after the imam has risen. The Prophet, peace and blessings be upon him, said: "The imam is only appointed to be followed, so when he says the takbir, say the takbir; and when he bows, then bow; and when he prostrates, then prostrate" (agreed upon, i.e., reported by both al-Bukhari and Muslim).
It is stated in Mughni al-Muhtaj (1/505): "Among the conditions of valid congregational prayer (iqtida') is following the imam in the actions of the prayer... meaning that following the imam is obligatory in the physical actions of the prayer, not in its verbal utterances... Complete following (kamal al-mutaba'ah) is achieved when the follower's beginning of an action comes after the imam's beginning of that same action, while the follower's beginning of the action precedes the imam's completion of it" — end of quote, with slight paraphrasing.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.