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Statement on Zakat-ul-Fitr/1430 AH
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 06-04-2023

Statement on Zakat-ul-Fitr/1430 AH

 

 

In the Name of Allah, the Most Gracious, The Most Merciful

 

 

Praise be to the Lord of all worlds. Prayers and peace be upon our Prophet, Muhammad, his family and all of his companions.

 

Zakat-ul-Fitr is a religious obligation. Ibn `Umar (May Allah Be Pleased with them) narrated: "Allah's Messenger (PBUH) Made it incumbent on all the slave or free Muslims, male or female, to pay one Sa' of dates or barley as Zakat-ul-Fitr." {Related by Bukhari & Muslim}.

 

Therefore, the amount of Zakat-ul-Fitr is one Sa` of food. {Sa` is approximately equal to (2.5 Kgs.)}. In the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan, the common food is wheat. Therefore, Zakat-ul-Fitr is (2.5 Kgs.) of wheat on every person. It is also permissible to give one Sa` of rice since it is common food as well. Moreover, it is also permissible to give the value of this amount in cash. However, giving wheat or rice is better so as not to contradict the view of the jurists in favor of this.

 

We have asked about the price of one kilo of wheat and found that the average is (60 piasters), so (150 piasters) is due on each person as Zakat-ul-Fitr and whoever gives more Allah will reward them greater than that.

 

Zakatu-ul-Fitr is due on the capable Muslim along with his dependents (Wife, children and poor parents) as well as the child born before the sunset of the last day of Ramadan.

 

The preferred time for giving Zakat-ul-Fitr is between the sunset of the last day of Ramadan and the E`ed prayer. However, it is  permissible to give it from the beginning of Ramadan.

 

Nowadays, it is the duty of every Muslim to observe this ritual (Zakat-ul-Fitr) for it purifies the soul from any indecent acts. Therefore, it must be given on behalf of the child, who isn`t obliged to fast as well as the sick who is unable to fast. Ibn ’Abbas (May Allah be pleased with them) narrated: "The Messenger of Allah (PBUH) Enjoined Zakat-ul-fitr on the one who fasts (i.e. fasted during the month of Ramadan) to purify him from any indecent act or speech and to provide food for the needy." {Abu Dawoud}. Giving it to the poor makes them self-sufficient on the day of E`ed. Therefore, a Muslim should give it willingly and kindly.

 

We pray that Allah The Almighty Accepts our acts of devotion and Erases our sins. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

 

All blessings be on Prophet Mohammad, his household and companions.

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it permissible for someone who is unable to fast to pay the fidyah (ransom/compensation payment) to himself, due to his own poverty?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is not permissible, nor does it fulfill the obligation, for a sick person who is currently and permanently unable to fast to pay the fidyah (ransom/compensation payment) to himself, since it is a financial obligation owed by him, established as a standing debt upon him — much like any other debt he owes. If he were to pay it to himself, it would not thereby be discharged. So if he cannot find [anyone eligible to] pay it to, it remains a standing obligation upon him, and is not thereby waived. If Allah, the Mighty and Majestic, later grants him wealth, it becomes obligatory upon him to pay it out to the poor and needy.
Imam al-Khaṭīb ash-Shirbīnī (raḥimahullāh) said: "There is no difference in the obligation of the fidyah between the wealthy and the poor person; its benefit lies in its remaining established as a standing debt upon the poor person [until he is able to pay it] — and this is the more correct position (al-aṣaḥḥ), as indicated by the wording of ar-Rawḍah and its source text." [Mughnī al-Muḥtāj, Vol.2/P.174]
Accordingly: it is not permissible for a Muslim to pay the fidyah to himself while he remains poor. If the sick person is poor, he is not obligated to pay the fidyah immediately, and it remains a standing debt upon him until a time when he has sufficient means and wealth. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling on having an intention (Niyyah) for every prayer?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
Intention (Niyyah) is a pillar (Rukn) without which the prayer is not valid. The worshiper must have an intention for every prayer, meaning they must consciously intend the act of worship they are performing. Its timing must coincide with the opening Takbir (Takbirat al-Ihram). It is not a requirement to utter it verbally; rather, doing so is considered a recommended Sunnah. There are three levels of intention:
 
1-If the prayer is obligatory (Fard): It is mandatory to include the Intent (to pray), the Specification (which prayer, e.g., 'Asr), and the Obligation (recognizing it as a Fard). For example, one should bring to mind or say: 'I intend to pray the Fard of 'Asr.'
 
2-If it is a voluntary prayer restricted by a specific time or cause (Sunnah Muqayyadah): It is mandatory to include the Intent and the Specification. For example: 'I intend to pray the Sunnah before Zuhr' or 'I intend to pray Duha.'
 
3-If it is an absolute voluntary prayer (Nafl Mutlaq): It is sufficient to simply have the Intent to pray. For example: 'I intend to pray.'
 
And Allah the Exalted knows best.

What is the difference between Qiyam al-Layl and Tahajjud?

● Qiyam al-Layl refers to any voluntary prayer performed at night, including Tarawih.
● Tahajjud specifically refers to voluntary prayer performed at night after waking up from sleep.
Glad tidings to those who combine both, as numerous Quranic verses and hadiths mention their virtues.
Allah Almighty says {what means}: "And rise from thy sleep and pray during part of the night [as well], as a free offering from thee, and thy Sustainer may well raise thee to a glorious station [in the life to come." [Al-Isra`/79]
The Prophetﷺ said: "Whoever stands (in prayer) during Ramadan with faith and seeking reward, all their past sins will be forgiven." [Agreed upon]

What is the ruling on a woman using contraception without her husband's knowledge if he is mistreating her?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is not permissible for a woman to use any means of delaying pregnancy without her husband's knowledge, consent, and mutual agreement. This is because having children is a sharʿī right belonging to both spouses equally in Islamic law. Imām al-Māwardī, may Allah have mercy upon him, stated: "The right to a child from a free woman is shared between them both" — meaning between the two spouses. [al-Ḥāwī al-Kabīr, 9/320]
It is therefore not permissible for either spouse to make a unilateral decision regarding the prevention of pregnancy without the consent of the other. We advise both spouses to discuss the matter with wisdom and mutual respect, so as to resolve any disagreement and arrive at a suitable solution that serves the interests of them both. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

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