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The Iftaa` Department Refrains from Interfering in the Judiciary
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 23-03-2023

The Iftaa` Department Refrains from Interfering in the Judiciary

 

 

Some media reported that the General Iftaa` Department refrained from issuing a Fatwa on the inadmissibility of the testimony of the woman who doesn`t wear Hijab.

 

In response to this claim, the Department wishes to make clear that the requested Fatwa is related to a case pending before the court. Therefore, it refrained from issuing that Fatwa to ensure the impartiality and independence of the judiciary system, the integrity of its provisions and non-interference in its affairs, as provided for in the legislations in force. This is to achieve justice and preserve the rights of the litigants.

 

The Department asserts that non-interference in cases pending before the court is its adopted approach since its establishment to safeguard the integrity of litigation from any external influences.

 

Only Allah leads to prosperity and guides to the straight path•

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is everyone obligated to follow the fatwas of his country, and if we adopt the fatwas of scholars of other countries, is it considered a sin?

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Wolrds and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.

It is permissible for the person who isn't specialized in Sharia sciences to apply the opinions of renowned scholars whom he trusts ,whether they be from his own country or not ,but if the scholars have different opnions regarding a certain issue/matter, then he must consult someone who is more knowledgeable than himself .It is preferable that you (the questioner) specify the case of your interest ,so that we could give you a more specific answer since some scholars deliver fatwas based on illogical/atypical opinions which should not be applied no matter what .And Allah The Exalted Knows Best.

Does the wife have the right to stop her husband from visiting some of his relatives because their meetings involve religious violations?

Couples should advise one another in kindness, and the wife can stop her husband from committing sin by resorting to a kind and tactful approach.

I missed fasting 30 days of the obligatory fast within the last 6 years and 20 days. How do I fast? And what should I do? 

Missed fasting days must be made up, and it is permissible to make them up on non-consecutive days, as continuity is not required for making up missed fasts. Additionally, expiation (Fidya) must be given: feeding one needy person for each day if the makeup is delayed for one year. If the delay extends to two years, Fidya must be given to two needy people per day, and so on. And Allah Knows Best.
 
 
 
 
 

What is the ruling if a postpartum woman becomes pure before forty days; are acts of worship obligatory upon her, and is she permissible for her husband?

If the postpartum woman becomes definitely pure before forty days, she must perform the ritual bath and perform acts of worship as a pure woman does. What was prohibited for her also becomes permissible, so she becomes permissible for her husband after her bath. The minimum duration for postpartum bleeding is a moment (an instant), and its usual maximum is forty days. Reaching forty days is not a condition; rather, it is sufficient for the blood to stop or to see the white discharge (qassa bayda'). And Allah the Almighty knows best.

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