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The Iftaa` Department Refrains from Interfering in the Judiciary
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 23-03-2023

The Iftaa` Department Refrains from Interfering in the Judiciary

 

 

Some media reported that the General Iftaa` Department refrained from issuing a Fatwa on the inadmissibility of the testimony of the woman who doesn`t wear Hijab.

 

In response to this claim, the Department wishes to make clear that the requested Fatwa is related to a case pending before the court. Therefore, it refrained from issuing that Fatwa to ensure the impartiality and independence of the judiciary system, the integrity of its provisions and non-interference in its affairs, as provided for in the legislations in force. This is to achieve justice and preserve the rights of the litigants.

 

The Department asserts that non-interference in cases pending before the court is its adopted approach since its establishment to safeguard the integrity of litigation from any external influences.

 

Only Allah leads to prosperity and guides to the straight path•

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Is it permissible to offer prayer at home, or should it be offered in the mosque?

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds.                                                                                                                                                                      It isn`t preferable for the man to pray at home as praying in the mosque is twenty seven times more rewarding. Therefore, this should motivate him to offer prayers in the mosque. And Allah Knows Best.

Is a person who is in a state of Janabah (major ritual impurity due to having a marital intercourse, ejaculation, menstruation, and post-delivery impurities) sinful if he/she goes about his/her daily life activities in that state i.e. without making Ghusl (ritual bath)?

It goes without saying that a Muslim should always be in a state of ritual purity so as to be able to perform prayers and recite Quran. It is from Sunnah (Prophetic tradition) that a Muslim hastens to make Ghusl from Janabah, but he/she is not sinful in case he/she delayed that provided that he/she doesn`t miss prayers. However, it is permissible for him/her to go about their daily activities while in a state of Janabah, but had better bathe in order not to miss any prayer.

Is it permissible for a woman to perform the obligatory prayer immediately after the adhan and before the Iqamah is performed in the mosque?

 

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
Yes, it is permissible for a woman to perform the obligatory (Fard) prayer immediately after the Adhan (call to prayer) and before the Iqamah (call to commence prayer) is performed in the mosque. And Allah the Exalted knows best.