Articles

Oaths: Questions & Answers
Author : Dr. Hassan Abu_Arqoub
Date Added : 30-11-2022

 

Praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

 

Oaths and their Kaffara (atonement) are most needed in people`s daily life; therefore, I have adapted examples on this subject from Al-Shirbini`s book [Moghni Al-Mohtaj].

Definition:

An oath is swearing by Allah or any of His attributes or names.

What makes an oath effective?

An oath doesn`t become effective unless the person swears by Allah or any of His attributes. For example, (By Allah) (Wallah) or by the Lord of the Worlds (Wa Rab Al-Alameen).

 

What is the ruling on swearing by other than Allah?

 

It is disliked to swear by other than Allah. The evidence on this is that Ibn 'Umar (May Allah be pleased with them) said: The Prophet (PBUH) said, "Allah has prohibited you from taking an oath by your fathers. He who must take an oath, may do so by swearing in the Name of Allah or he should remain silent." [Agreed upon].

 

What did the Prophet (PBUH) mean by {He, who swears by anyone or anything other than Allah, has indeed committed an act of Kufr or Shirk "}?

 

First: One who swears by anyone or anything other than Allah has indeed committed an act similar to that of the infidels. This Hadith discourages such ugly acts.

 

Second: One who believes that what he had sworn by is as glorified as Allah has committed Kufr and Shirk.

 

Is the oath of one who said (By the right of Allah) considered effective?

 

If the swearer intended (By the right of Allah) as an oath, then it is definitely an oath, and the same is true if he made it unconditional, without intention. This is because this phrase is often used in oaths, so it is considered as such.

 

Is the oath of the one who swears by the Quran considered effective?

 

Swearing by the Glorious Quran is considered an oath because the Quran is the word of Allah, and His word is one of His attributes. He The Almighty Says (What means): "Of some apostles We have already told thee the story; of others We have not;- and to Moses God spoke direct;-" [An-Nisaa`/164]. We have stated earlier that an oath becomes effective when any of Allah`s attributes is used.

 

If a person said: (By Allah, I will do so and so), is his oath considered effective?

 

Using one of the letters of oath (Qasam/Yameen), such as (Baa`, Wawo, or Taa`), render an oath effective, even without making the intention of an oath. Be that in the nominative or accusative.

 

If a person said: (I swear to you by Allah) or (I ask you by Allah to do so and so), is this oath considered effective and who is liable for it?

 

If the person taking the oath intended it as such then it is considered an oath. In addition, the addressee is encouraged to fulfill that oath if it doesn`t involve anything prohibited or disliked. If the addressee didn`t fulfill it, then the person who took it is liable for atonement. However, If his intention is/isn`t to make the addressee the one swearing by Allah; rather, he meant Allah`s intercession or made the oath unconditional, then this isn`t considered an oath, and neither the person taking the oath nor the addressee is liable for the Kaffara of breaking an oath.

 

What is the ruling on one who says (If I do so and so, then I`m a Jew or a Christian)?

 

First: This isn`t considered an oath because neither Allah`s name nor any of His attributes is mentioned.

 

Second: The person taking it isn`t liable for Kaffara.

 

Third: Swearing by such words is a sin and uttering them is prohibited.

 

Fourth: All the above is in case the person is taking the oath (If I do so and so, then I`m a Jew or a Christian) to distance themselves from something. However, if he meant that he accepts to be a Jew or something within that meaning, then he is immediately considered a Kafir (Infidel).

 

What is the ruling if the person intended to take an oath to do something but said something else by mistake?

 

This is considered a false oath and no Kaffara is due on him.

 

What is the ruling if a person entered and his friend was lying down and the latter wanted to stand for him out of respect, but the former said: "By Allah, don`t stand" but he stood?

 

This is considered a false oath and no Kaffara is due on him.

 

What is the ruling when a person says: "By Allah, I have/haven`t done this or that" and was intentionally lying?

 

This is perjury oath that immerses its taker in sin or into Hell, and it is among the major sins and a Kaffara must be paid.

 

What is the ruling on the person who takes an oath to leave a duty/obligation or do something forbidden?

 

One who takes an oath to leave a religious obligation, such as saying: (I swear by Allah I won`t pray Fajir) or swore by Allah to commit what is forbidden, such as saying: (I swear by Allah I will accept bribe), is disobedient to Allah in both forms. Therefore, he must break that oath by performing the obligation and refraining from the forbidden, in addition to paying a Kaffara, as not doing so makes him in state of disobedience to Allah.

 

What is the Kaffara for an oath and why is it an obligation?

 

The Kaffara for an oath is freeing a slave, feeding ten poor persons or clothing them of the same standard you do for yourself. If you can`t, then you should fast three days, and it isn`t conditioned that they be fasted successively. As for the reason the Kaffara is an obligation, it is for both the oath and the breaking of the oath.

 

Is it permissible to offer Kaffara before breaking the oath?

 

Is it permissible for the person to offer Kaffara (freeing a slave, feeding ten poor persons or clothing them of the same standard you do for yourself) before breaking his oath. As for fasting, it can`t be offered before breaking the oath.

For example, if he said: (By Allah I won`t enter the house of my maternal aunt), but later wanted to enter to maintain ties of kinship, then he is allowed to feed or clothe ten poor persons before her enters her house. He is also allowed to feed or clothe ten poor persons after her enters her house. However, if he can`t afford the food or the clothing, then he can`t fast until after her enters her house and breaks his oath.

 

What food and clothing?

 

One mud (600 gr. of wheat or rice) for each poor person. According to the Hanafi school of thought, it is permissible to give the monetary value of this mud (60 piasters for each poor person). As for the clothing, it could be shirts, trousers, garment, Thawb, and it isn`t conditioned that the sizeof the garment of suits the recipient.

 

What is the ruling when one says (By Allah I won`t put on these two garments), but wore one? Or said: (By Allah I won`t talk to these two men), but spoke to one of them?

 

The oath isn`t broken if the person taking it wore one garment or spoke to one man, because his oath is intended for both, but that wasn`t the case since he neither wore both garments nor spoke to both men.

 

What is the ruling on the person who said: (By Allah I will neither wear this garment nor that) or (By Allah I will neither speak to this man nor that)?

 

The oath is broken by wearing any of the garments or speaking to any of the men because the oath taker repeated the negation letter (لا), and this repetition made each act intended by the oath.

 

What is the ruling on the person who said: (By Allah I will eat these two loaves of bread) or (By Allah I will speak to these two men)?

 

If he ate the two loaves or spoke to the two men, his oath isn`t broken. However, if he ate a loaf or spoke to one man, then his oath is broken.

 

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on wearing energy stones?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
There is no objection to a woman adorning herself with precious and semi-precious stones — such as ruby, carnelian, or the like — so long as these are stones that women customarily wear as adornment.
As for what are known as "energy stones," if they are used with the intention of seeking remedy and healing, then such matters are governed by experimentation and scientific study — which either establishes that they have a tangible effect or does not — and all of this operates by the permission and will of Allah, Glorified and Exalted. If studies or practical experience do establish that such stones carry a beneficial effect upon human health, then there is no objection to using them. They are, after all, part of Allah's creation, much like medicinal substances extracted from plants or derived from other created things — provided that the Muslim does not believe that the stone itself is the source of benefit or harm. It is nothing more than a means among the many means that Allah has placed in this world, and the reality of all affairs belongs to Allah alone. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

A woman made a wig for herself from her own [previously shed] hair, which she wears on her head after having lost her hair [due to hair loss]. Is this permissible?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Since the hair belongs to the woman herself, the wig can be removed during the obligatory ghusl (ritual bathing), and part of the head can still be wiped during wuḍū' (ablution), there is no sharī‘ah objection to making this wig — provided she does not appear wearing it in front of non-maḥram men (Any males outside a woman's immediate family whom she is permitted to marry under Islamic law), since it is not permissible for them to look at a woman's detached hair.
It is stated in Rawḍat aṭ-Ṭālibīn wa ‘Umdat al-Muftīn: "Whatever it is not permissible to look at while still attached [to the body] — such as the male genitalia, a free woman's forearm, the hair of her head, and a man's pubic hair, and similar matters — it remains unlawful to look at even after it has been detached [from the body], according to the more correct position (al-aṣaḥḥ)." And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Can someone break a make up fast (qada) after beginning it?

Once a person begins a make up fast (qada), it is prohibited to break it.
If they break it without a valid excuse, they are sinful, and the missed Ramadan fast remains a debt upon them.

What is the ruling on praying seated due to severe obesity, given that I experience hardship in performing the prayer — especially when rising from the ground after sujūd to perform the next rak‘ah?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Standing, when one is able to do so, is a pillar of the prayer. However, whoever would experience severe, intolerable hardship, or fears harm to himself or to a limb due to obesity, or finds that standing causes him to lose his khushū‘ (humble focus and concentration) in prayer, then there is no objection to his praying seated on a chair or on the ground, performing rukū‘ (bowing) and sujūd (prostration) through gesture — provided that the gesture for sujūd is made lower than that for rukū‘. Whoever is able, at any point, to properly perform any one of these pillars, is obligated to perform it in full; for omitting it is a concession that applies only in cases of genuine inability. The Prophet ﷺ said: "When I command you to do something, do of it whatever you are able." (Related by al-Bukhārī). As the scholars of fiqh have established: what remains possible is not waived on account of what is difficult.
The criterion for determining genuine inability, as chosen by Imam al-Ḥaramayn al-Juwaynī (raḥimahullāh), is that the worshipper experiences hardship that causes him to lose his khushū‘.
As for voluntary (nafl) prayer, there is no objection to performing it while seated, even if one is able to stand. However, rukū‘ and sujūd must still be performed [in their proper physical form] by anyone who is able to do so. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.