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It isn`t Permissible to Expand Government Expenditures even within the Budget
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 18-10-2022

It isn`t Permissible to Expand Government Expenditures even within the Budget

 

State budget is prepared based on the needs of government departments over the coming year. However, if there is no need for spending , then it isn`t permissible to do so, because every person in charge is in a position of trust as regards the public money at their disposal. If the money isn`t spent according to the actual need, then this is disobeying Allah, betraying trust, and making every member of society their opponent before Allah on the Day of Judgment.

Budget surplus must be returned to the public treasury. Last year, the Iftaa` Department returned (488.000 JDs). This is attested to in the following narration: Ibn 'Umar (May Allah be pleased with them) reported: The Prophet (PBUH) said, "All of you are guardians and are responsible for your subjects. The ruler is a guardian of his subjects, the man is a guardian of his family, the woman is a guardian and is responsible for her husband's house and his offspring; and so all of you are guardians and are responsible for your subjects." [Al-Bukhari and Muslim].

By Grand Mufti,

Dr. Nooh Salaman Al-Qhodat

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

I am a doctor, and sometimes I refer patients to the hospital for surgical interventions, and they give me a commission from the fees of the surgeries, even though I do not perform these surgeries. What is the ruling?

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His Peace and Blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.
If this commission is charged to the patient as part of the operation costs, then it is not permissible. Additionally, a doctor should only recommend surgery if there is a genuine medical need, and the hospital should only perform an operation when necessary. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
 
 
 
 
 

I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
 
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah Says (What means): "Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" [Al-Baqarah/ 221]. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
 

When does the time of Isha' prayer end?

All perfect praise be to Allah,The Lord of The Worlds                                                                                                                                                                        It ends at the emergence of true Fajr (Fajr Al-Sadiq ), and when the second Athaan of Fajr starts.And Allah Knows Best.

If a woman makes a vow to slaughter a sheep, and her husband is the one who buys it for her from his own money, and he says: "It is for you until you fulfill your vow with it," Is this permissible, or must she buy it herself from her own money?

If her husband gave her the sheep as a donation for the puprose of fulfilling the oath she made and was slaughtered by the wife or the husband on her behalf then the vow she made is fulfilled. And Allah Knows Best. 

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