What is the ruling on waiving a debt owed by a debtor and counting it toward zakāh?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Waiving a debt owed by a debtor, with the intention of counting it toward zakāh, does not fulfill the zakāh obligation. Rather, it constitutes an ordinary act of charity, for which Allah rewards the giver generously — since one of the conditions for the validity of zakāh is that the person paying it must form the intention of zakāh at the actual moment the wealth is paid out. In this case, the debt has already been established as a standing obligation upon the borrower, so it is not valid to simply redirect the intention toward zakāh after the fact.
It is preferable, instead, for the creditor to first collect the debt from the debtor, and then return to him the amount of money he is required to pay as zakāh — or a portion of it — if the debtor happens to fall under one of the eight categories that Allah, the Exalted, has commanded be given from zakāh.
It is stated in ‘Umdat as-Sālik, from the books of the Shāfi‘ī school: "If someone gives [money] to a poor person, stipulating that the recipient return it to him in payment of a debt owed to him, or says, 'I am making what you owe me into zakāh, so take it [as such]' — this is not valid. But if he gives it to him with the [unstated] intention that the recipient will use it to repay him, or says, 'Repay what you owe me, so that I may [then separately] give it to you as zakāh,' or the debtor himself says, 'Give it to me, so that I may [then] repay you with it' — this is valid, and there is no binding obligation for the recipient to actually fulfill this [informal understanding]." And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
Is it permissible for a husband to stop his wife from visiting her family?
A husband shouldn`t stop his wife from visiting her family, and it is disliked for him to do so because such an act makes them harbor feelings of hatred against him.
How does a praying person prostrate?
All perfect praise be to Allah,The Lord of The Worlds It is from Sunnah that he/she sits with both knees on the ground in order to prostrate, then hands, nose and forehead are placed on the same place. In addition, the toes have to touch the ground, and be directed towards the Qiblah (direction of Ka`bah) during prostration. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible to use unscented petroleum jelly (Vaseline) during ‘Umrah, in order to prevent skin chafing or irritation?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
According to the Shāfi‘ī school, it is permissible for someone in the state of iḥrām to use oils and creams free of perfume/fragrance on parts of the body other than the head and beard, for a genuine medical need — such as preventing skin chafing or irritation. However, applying them to the head or beard remains unlawful.
Shaykh al-Islām, Imam an-Nawawī (raḥimahullāh), says in al-Majmū‘ (Vol.7/P.279): "Oils are of two types: the first is an oil that is neither perfumed itself nor contains any perfume — such as olive oil, sesame oil, ghee, butter, walnut oil, almond oil, and similar oils. The use of this type is not unlawful anywhere on the body, except on the head and beard — where its use is unlawful without any disagreement [among the scholars]." And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
