Clarification from Iftaa` Department

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What is the ruling of Islamic Law on saying the basmalah at the beginning of wudu`?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.

Saying the basmalah (Bismillāh) at the beginning of wuḍūʾ is a sunnah. It is stated in al-Minhāj al-Qawīm Sharḥ al-Muqaddimah al-Ḥaḍramiyyah (p. 27): “Its sunnahs include the siwāk, then the tasmiyah (saying Bismillāh), joined with the intention (niyyah), at the start of washing the hands.” And Allah Almighty knows best.

Is it permissible for the person who hasn`t made wudu` (state of minor ritual impurity) to perform the Adhan?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.

It is disliked (Makruh) for a person in a state of minor ritual impurity (Hadath Asghar) to perform the Adhan. However, if he does so, his Adhan is considered valid and fulfills the sunnah of the Adhan despite it being disliked. And Allah the Exalted knows best.

What is the ruling on the use of an inhaler by a muḥrim (a person in the state of iḥrām)? [An inhaler is a medicinal device used for inhalation, containing various herbal ingredients.]؟

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.

It is permissible for the muḥrim (a person in the state of iḥrām) to use incense (bakhūr), sprays, and inhalers that contain aromatic substances for the purpose of treatment, because the intention is medical treatment, not the use of perfume (taṭayyub). No expiation (fidyah) is required of him for doing so.

It is stated in Ḥāshiyat al-Bujayrimī ʿalā al-Khaṭīb (Vol.2/p.455): “That which is intended for eating or for medical treatment, even if it has a pleasant scent, such as apples, spikenard (sunbul), and the various fragrant spices such as mastic (muṣṭakā), is not forbidden, and no fidyah is due for it, because what is intended for eating or treatment carries no fidyah.”. And Allah Almighty knows best.

Does touching women temporarily forbidden in marriage nullify ablution?

It is prohibited to touch, or to shake hands with such women as they are considered strangers, and doing so nullifies ablution.

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Clarification from Iftaa` Department

Author : The General Iftaa' Department

Date Added : 08-09-2022

Clarification from Iftaa` Department

The General Iftaa` Department celebrates along with all Jordanians the Anniversary of the Royal Accession to the Throne and takes pride in all the gains achieved since the founding of the kingdom until now. It takes this opportunity to congratulate His Majesty King Abdullah II on the twentieth anniversary of his accession to the throne. In the meantime, it stresses that it is the duty of every citizen to preserve and take part in the advancement of our country at all levels.

Moreover, the Iftaa` Department confirms that it hasn`t recently issued a statement regarding patriotic songs and calls on media to avoid using the religion for unprofessional incitement during such significant national occasions.

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Summarized Fatawaa

Does the clipping of nails nullify ablution?

No, it does not, and it is preferable to wash the hands afterwards.

Does using a gargling medicine break the fast?

If the medicine reaches the body cavity (jauf), the fast is invalidated. However, if it does not enter the body cavity, the fast remains valid.

Therefore, it is advisable to avoid using it during the day in Ramadan.

I broke my oath and am now obligated to pay the expiation for a broken oath (kaffārat al-yamīn). Would it be valid to fulfill this by inviting the poor and needy to a meal for them to eat from?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.

The expiation for a broken oath (kaffārat al-yamīn) is given to the poor (fuqarā') and needy (masākīn), and it must be given in the form of ownership (tamlīk) transferred to them of the required amount — namely, one mudd of the staple food of the locality, or its equivalent monetary value. It isn`t valid to invite the poor or needy to a meal prepared for them to eat from, as this does not constitute "ownership" (tamlīk) but merely "permission to partake" (ibāḥah).

Imam al-Shirbīnī (may Allah have mercy on him) said: "What is intended is that ownership be transferred to them; therefore, providing them with lunch or dinner [as a meal to eat from] isn`t valid." [Summarized from Mughnī al-Muhtāj,Vol. 5/P.50]. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is it permissible for a wife to refuse to go to bed with her husband (for sexual intercourse)?

It isn`t permissible for her to do so unless for a sound reason.