Articles

The Participation in Elections is a Trust and a Constitutional Right
Author : The General Iftaa` Department
Date Added : 11-11-2020

 

The Participation in Elections is a Trust and a Constitutional Right

 

Participating in parliamentary elections is legitimate, in addition to being a constitutional right, a national duty and a trust, which a citizen should preserve and deliver properly. It is also a testimony for which he/she will be called to account before Almighty Allah since He Says (What means): "Their testimony will be recorded and they will be questioned." [Al-Zukhruf/19].

 

A voter should be keen on electing the strong and trusty candidate because Allah Says (What means): "Said one of the (damsels): "O my (dear) father! engage him on wages: truly the best of men for thee to employ is the (man) who is strong and trusty...." [Al-Qasas/26]. Consequently, whoever votes for a non-eligible candidate betrays the trust of Allah and His Messenger and misappropriates knowingly things entrusted to him/her. This is attested to in the verse where Allah Says (What means): "O ye that believe! betray not the trust of God and the Apostle, nor misappropriate knowingly things entrusted to you." [Al-Anfal/27]. 

Members of parliament who have these traits are expected to perform the duties for which they are elected.

 

Elections provide a legitimate way for the people to elect members of parliament (MPs) and it is one of the Shura mechanisms acknowledged by Sharia, as indicated by extensive evidence from the Quran and the Prophetic Sunnah. Not only that, but the companions had applied this mechanism at the beginning of the history of Islam. Earlier, members of parliament used to be known as "Urafa" (Headmen). The Prophet (PBUH) used to check with them about people`s opinions on public issues where he (PBUH) used to say: "Go back so that your 'Urafa' may submit your decision to us." [Bukhari].

 

We also remind everyone to follow the health directives in terms of wearing masks, keeping social distance during the electoral process, and following other protective measures to preserve lives and safety of everyone because it was narrated from Ibn 'Abbas that the Messenger of Allah (PBUH) said: "There should be neither harming nor reciprocating harm."

 

 

 

 

 

Article Number [ Previous | Next ]

Read for Author




Comments


Captcha


Warning: this window is not dedicated to receive religious questions, but to comment on topics published for the benefit of the site administrators—and not for publication. We are pleased to receive religious questions in the section "Send Your Question". So we apologize to readers for not answering any questions through this window of "Comments" for the sake of work organization. Thank you.




Summarized Fatawaa

What is the meaning of the Prophetic statement that a boy is held in pledge (murtahan) for his 'aqīqah?

All praise is due to Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
The first interpretation: That if the boy dies in infancy without an 'aqīqah having been performed on his behalf, he will not intercede for his parents on the Day of Resurrection. This is the position of Imam Aḥmad ibn Ḥanbal, and Imam al-Khaṭṭābī concurred with him, stating: "The finest of what has been said regarding this matter is the position adopted by Aḥmad ibn Ḥanbal." — [Fatḥ al-Bārī by Ibn Ḥajar,{Vol.9/P.594]
The second interpretation: That the child is likened to a pledged object (marhūn) — one from which full benefit and enjoyment cannot be derived until it is redeemed. A blessing is only made complete upon the one blessed when they fulfil the obligation of gratitude (shukr), and the prescribed expression of gratitude for this particular blessing is what the Prophet ﷺ established as Sunnah — namely, the slaughtering of the 'aqīqah on behalf of the newborn as an act of thankfulness to Allah the Almighty and as a supplication for the wellbeing and safety of the child. This is the position of Mullā 'Alī al-Qārī. See: [Mirqāt al-Mafātīḥ Sharḥ Mishkāt al-Maṣābīḥ, Vol.7/P.2688]
And Allah Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law regarding one who slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, and is it permissible to slaughter the ewe if one knows it is pregnant?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
If a person slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, the fetus becomes lawful (ḥalāl) by virtue of its mother's slaughter (tabaʿan li-ummihā).
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.6/P.158): "A fetus found dead [after the mother's slaughter], or found alive but in a state resembling that of a slaughtered animal [i.e., dying shortly after], becomes lawful — whether or not it had grown fur — provided it is found in the womb of a mother that was lawfully slaughtered, whether her slaughter was by cutting the throat, or by an arrow or hunting dog sent after her. This is based on the ḥadīth: 'The slaughtering of the fetus is [effected by] the slaughtering of its mother' [narrated by al-Tirmidhī, who graded it ḥasan, and by Ibn Ḥibbān, who graded it ṣaḥīḥ] — meaning that the slaughter which rendered the mother lawful renders the fetus lawful as well, by virtue of following her; and because the fetus is one of her constituent parts, and her slaughter renders lawful all of her parts."
This ruling differs, however, from the case of one who knows from the outset that the ewe is pregnant [and intends to sacrifice her specifically as the udḥiyah while pregnant] — in which case, according to the Shāfi'ī school, she does not fulfill the requirement of a valid sacrifice.
It is stated in Ḥāshiyat al-Bujayrimī 'alā al-Khaṭīb (Vol.4/P.335): "A pregnant animal does not fulfill the requirement [of a valid sacrifice], and this is the authoritative position (al-mu'tamad), because pregnancy diminishes the quality of the meat. As for why such an animal is nevertheless counted as complete [i.e., fully valid] in matters of zakāh, that is because the intent there is reproduction (nasl), not the quality of the meat.". And Allah, the Most High, knows best.

Is it permissible for a woman in her menstrual period to recite from the Mus-haf (copy of the Quran ), or to recite by heart?

A menstruating woman is permitted neither to recite nor to touch the Quran according to what Ali Bin Abi Talib (May Allah be pleased with him) reported about the Prophet (PBUH) who was only held from reciting the Holy Quran by Janabah (Major impurity) [Al-Tirmizi in a sound Hadith]. Although Janabah and menstruation are major impurities, a menstruating woman is permitted to supplicate Allah (Duaa`) and make Zikr (Tasbihat ), even if these involved saying words from the Holy Quran, provided that she does not mean the words for themselves but as a supplication, or Zikr. Moreover, she is rewarded for not reciting the Quran during her menstrual period because she abided by the injunctions of Allah.

Does the time of Fajr (dawn) prayer start after the first Athaan (call for prayer), or the second one?

All perfect praise be to Allah,The Lord of The Worlds                                                                                                                                                                    The time of Fajr prayer starts after the second Adhan. And Allah Knows Best.