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People Infected with COVID-19 are Prohibited to Mix with Others in order to Avoid Transmitting the Infection
Author : The General Iftaa' Department
Date Added : 04-11-2020

People Infected with Coronavirus are Prohibited to Mix with Others in order to Avoid Transmitting the Infection 

 

The people infected with an infectious disease such as COVID-19  or might be aren't permitted to mix with sound people, in order to avoid transmitting it to the latter; because this will cause damage; particularly, to the people in the first place , country's health, economic and security in addition to causing failure to both private and public sectors.

 

In this regard, the Prophet (PBUH) ordered us to be in quarantine in case plague breaks out which is considered an infectious disease, since he said (What means):" If you hear that it (plague) has broken out in a land, do not go to it; but if it breaks out in a land where you are present, do not go out escaping from it." Besides, according to scholars, the forbid in the above narration is of the same level of prohibition .i.e. the prohibition of going out a country in if the plague breaks out in it and the prohibition of fleeing away from a country in which the plague has broken out in it.

 

Moreover, Every infectious disease such as COVID-19 is measured and should has the same procedures of plague, so the infected person isn't permitted to mix with sound people because such an act will definitely cause them harm; in addition, the Prophet (PBUH) said (What means):" There should be neither harming nor reciprocating harm.". 

Further, the infected one is not permitted to pray at the Mosque and to avoid gatherings at all and considered sinful if he did otherwise. As the smell of onion and garlic exempts a person from performing congregational prayers in the Mosque, then what will be the case with infectious disease that might cause either death or harm!

 

Therefore, the infected person has to abide by the quarantine as well as to follow the procedures and instructions issued by specialists, and whosoever isn't committed to the latter procedures is considered sinful according to the ruling of Sharia and his act is of striving with might and main for mischief through the land, for Allah, The Exalted said (What means):" and those strive with might and main for mischief through the land." 

 

Furthermore, whoever violates the above procedures and instructions deserves punishment in this life and in the Hereafter, because he violated what been enjoined by Allah and His Messenger and accordingly, the ruler who ordered the infected person not to mix with others for the good of all people; yet, the latter should act in accordance to the benefit of people as stipulated by jurists and the punishment of the aforementioned violation is determined by him based on the quantity of damage inflicted upon others by the infected person.

 

Besides, whosoever avoid the quarantine and mixes with others although being infected with infectious disease and causes death to others, is considered murderer and he is obliged to pay Diya and fast for two consecutive months. In addition, the compensation (the Diya and fasting) are due on him for each death that took place due to his violation, for Allah, The Exalted said (What means):" Never should a believer kill a believer; but (If it so happens) by mistake, (Compensation is due): If one (so) kills a believer, it is ordained that he should free a believing slave, and pay compensation to the deceased’s family, unless they remit it freely. If the deceased belonged to a people at war with you, and he was a believer, the freeing of a believing slave (Is enough). If he belonged to a people with whom ye have treaty of Mutual alliance, compensation should be paid to his family, and a believing slave be freed).

 

Finally, the person infected with COVID-19 and the one who might be should take all proper procedures to preserve their health .i.e. being in quarantine to avoid transmitting the infection and whoever violates that is considered sinful and is to be punished in this life and in the Hereafter; furthermore, if he didn't get his punishment in this life then he won't be able to do so in the Hereafter save if he repent to Allah.

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling of Islamic Law regarding one who slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, and is it permissible to slaughter the ewe if one knows it is pregnant?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
If a person slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, the fetus becomes lawful (ḥalāl) by virtue of its mother's slaughter (tabaʿan li-ummihā).
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.6/P.158): "A fetus found dead [after the mother's slaughter], or found alive but in a state resembling that of a slaughtered animal [i.e., dying shortly after], becomes lawful — whether or not it had grown fur — provided it is found in the womb of a mother that was lawfully slaughtered, whether her slaughter was by cutting the throat, or by an arrow or hunting dog sent after her. This is based on the ḥadīth: 'The slaughtering of the fetus is [effected by] the slaughtering of its mother' [narrated by al-Tirmidhī, who graded it ḥasan, and by Ibn Ḥibbān, who graded it ṣaḥīḥ] — meaning that the slaughter which rendered the mother lawful renders the fetus lawful as well, by virtue of following her; and because the fetus is one of her constituent parts, and her slaughter renders lawful all of her parts."
This ruling differs, however, from the case of one who knows from the outset that the ewe is pregnant [and intends to sacrifice her specifically as the udḥiyah while pregnant] — in which case, according to the Shāfi'ī school, she does not fulfill the requirement of a valid sacrifice.
It is stated in Ḥāshiyat al-Bujayrimī 'alā al-Khaṭīb (Vol.4/P.335): "A pregnant animal does not fulfill the requirement [of a valid sacrifice], and this is the authoritative position (al-mu'tamad), because pregnancy diminishes the quality of the meat. As for why such an animal is nevertheless counted as complete [i.e., fully valid] in matters of zakāh, that is because the intent there is reproduction (nasl), not the quality of the meat.". And Allah, the Most High, knows best.

What is the ruling on swallowing phlegm while fasting?

If a fasting person intentionally swallows phlegm, their fast is invalid, as it is possible to avoid it.
However, if they swallow it unintentionally, their fast remains valid.
Phlegm is impure and should be avoided.

Is the Saying "Whatever is Taken by the Sword of Shyness is Forbidden" an Authentic Ḥadīth?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
The saying "Whatever is taken by the sword of shyness is forbidden" is not an authentic ḥadīth, though its underlying meaning is sound. The established sharʿī principle is that a Muslim's wealth is not lawful for anyone to take except with his wholehearted consent, as Allah the Almighty says {what means}: "O you who have believed, do not consume one another's wealth unjustly, but only [in lawful] business by mutual consent." [Al-Nisā/ 29] And the Messenger of Allah ﷺ said: "Listen to me and you will live well: do not wrong others, do not wrong others, do not wrong others. Indeed, a man's wealth is not lawful except with his full, willing consent." (Reported by Aḥmad in his Musnad.) Whatever is taken through the pressure of shyness or social embarrassment runs directly counter to genuine, wholehearted consent.
The jurists have explicitly stated that whatever is taken by means of the "sword of shyness" carries the same ruling as that which is taken by coercion — it must be returned to its rightful owner.
Ibn Ḥajar al-Haytamī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states in al-Fatāwā al-Kubrā (Vol.3/P.30): "Do you not see the reported scholarly consensus that whoever has something taken from him purely out of shyness, without his genuine consent, does not pass ownership of it to the one who took it? They reasoned that this constitutes a form of coercion through the 'sword of shyness,' comparable to coercion at the point of an actual sword. Indeed, many people would rather submit to the literal sword and endure the pain of its wound than submit to this first kind of coercion, out of fear for their dignity and standing — which people of sound judgment hold dear and guard most fiercely." And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on the prayer of zawal?

 

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is recommended (sunnah) to pray four rakʿāt — either with a single tasleem or as two separate sets of two rakʿāt — immediately following the sun's decline from its zenith (zawāl). This prayer is distinct from the regular Sunnah prayer of Ẓuhr (sunnat al-ẓuhr al-rātibah), as explicitly stated by the Shāfiʿī jurists.
It is mentioned in Nihāyat al-Muḥtāj: "The prayer of zawāl is offered after the sun's decline — so were one to perform it before that, it would not count. It consists of two or four rakʿāt and is distinct from the Sunnah of Ẓuhr, as is evident from the fact that it is mentioned separately after the regular Sunnah prayers, and it becomes a make-up prayer (qaḍāʾ) if a long period of time passes by customary reckoning... Al-ʿAlqamī stated: 'Scholars refer to this as the Sunnah of Zawāl, and it is distinct from the four rakʿāt that constitute the Sunnah of Ẓuhr.' Our shaykh said: Al-Ḥāfiẓ al-ʿIrāqī stated that among those who explicitly affirmed its recommendation was al-Ghazālī in al-Iḥyāʾ, in the chapter on devotional litanies, noting that there is no tasleem between them — meaning there is no break between each pair of rakʿāt."
The time of the sun's decline (zawāl) marks the very beginning of the time for the Ẓuhr prayer.
And Allah the Almighty knows best.