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People Infected with COVID-19 are Prohibited to Mix with Others in order to Avoid Transmitting the Infection
Author : The General Iftaa' Department
Date Added : 04-11-2020

People Infected with Coronavirus are Prohibited to Mix with Others in order to Avoid Transmitting the Infection 

 

The people infected with an infectious disease such as COVID-19  or might be aren't permitted to mix with sound people, in order to avoid transmitting it to the latter; because this will cause damage; particularly, to the people in the first place , country's health, economic and security in addition to causing failure to both private and public sectors.

 

In this regard, the Prophet (PBUH) ordered us to be in quarantine in case plague breaks out which is considered an infectious disease, since he said (What means):" If you hear that it (plague) has broken out in a land, do not go to it; but if it breaks out in a land where you are present, do not go out escaping from it." Besides, according to scholars, the forbid in the above narration is of the same level of prohibition .i.e. the prohibition of going out a country in if the plague breaks out in it and the prohibition of fleeing away from a country in which the plague has broken out in it.

 

Moreover, Every infectious disease such as COVID-19 is measured and should has the same procedures of plague, so the infected person isn't permitted to mix with sound people because such an act will definitely cause them harm; in addition, the Prophet (PBUH) said (What means):" There should be neither harming nor reciprocating harm.". 

Further, the infected one is not permitted to pray at the Mosque and to avoid gatherings at all and considered sinful if he did otherwise. As the smell of onion and garlic exempts a person from performing congregational prayers in the Mosque, then what will be the case with infectious disease that might cause either death or harm!

 

Therefore, the infected person has to abide by the quarantine as well as to follow the procedures and instructions issued by specialists, and whosoever isn't committed to the latter procedures is considered sinful according to the ruling of Sharia and his act is of striving with might and main for mischief through the land, for Allah, The Exalted said (What means):" and those strive with might and main for mischief through the land." 

 

Furthermore, whoever violates the above procedures and instructions deserves punishment in this life and in the Hereafter, because he violated what been enjoined by Allah and His Messenger and accordingly, the ruler who ordered the infected person not to mix with others for the good of all people; yet, the latter should act in accordance to the benefit of people as stipulated by jurists and the punishment of the aforementioned violation is determined by him based on the quantity of damage inflicted upon others by the infected person.

 

Besides, whosoever avoid the quarantine and mixes with others although being infected with infectious disease and causes death to others, is considered murderer and he is obliged to pay Diya and fast for two consecutive months. In addition, the compensation (the Diya and fasting) are due on him for each death that took place due to his violation, for Allah, The Exalted said (What means):" Never should a believer kill a believer; but (If it so happens) by mistake, (Compensation is due): If one (so) kills a believer, it is ordained that he should free a believing slave, and pay compensation to the deceased’s family, unless they remit it freely. If the deceased belonged to a people at war with you, and he was a believer, the freeing of a believing slave (Is enough). If he belonged to a people with whom ye have treaty of Mutual alliance, compensation should be paid to his family, and a believing slave be freed).

 

Finally, the person infected with COVID-19 and the one who might be should take all proper procedures to preserve their health .i.e. being in quarantine to avoid transmitting the infection and whoever violates that is considered sinful and is to be punished in this life and in the Hereafter; furthermore, if he didn't get his punishment in this life then he won't be able to do so in the Hereafter save if he repent to Allah.

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on forgiving a tenant next month's rent, with the intention of counting it toward zakāh al-māl?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It does not fulfill the obligation to count the rent owed on a house, or a portion of it, in lieu of zakāh. Rather, it is necessary to first transfer ownership of the zakāh amount to the poor person directly; only afterward may he be asked to pay the rent [from that money].
It is stated in ‘Umdat as-Sālik (p. 112): "If someone gives [money] to a poor person, stipulating that the recipient return it to him in payment of a debt owed to him, or says, 'I am making what you owe me into zakāh, so take it [as such]' — this is not valid. But if he gives it to him with the [unstated] intention that the recipient will use it to repay him, or says, 'Repay what you owe me, so that I may [then separately] give it to you as zakāh,' or the debtor himself says, 'Give it to me, so that I may [then] repay you with it' — this is valid, and there is no binding obligation for the recipient to actually fulfill this [informal understanding]."
We would also remind [the reader] of the ḥadīth of the Prophet ﷺ: "The Muslim is the brother of the Muslim: he does not wrong him, nor does he abandon him [to harm]. Whoever attends to the needs of his brother, Allah, the Mighty and Majestic, will attend to his needs. Whoever relieves a Muslim of a hardship, Allah, the Mighty and Majestic, will relieve him of one of the hardships of the Day of Resurrection. And whoever conceals [the faults of] a Muslim, Allah will conceal him on the Day of Resurrection." (Agreed upon). And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Is a person rewarded for refraining from all that breaks their fast when required to do so, and is it considered a valid fast?

If a person eats or drinks thinking that Fajr has not yet arrived, but then someone informs them that Fajr had already begun, they must refrain from eating for the rest of the day and make up the fast later.
If they observe the required restraint (imsak), they will be rewarded for obeying the command because fulfilling an obligation brings reward.
However, this is not considered a valid fast in terms of rulings. For example:
● It is not disliked (makruh) for them to use a miswak after noon.
● They are not encouraged to hasten the breaking of the fast at sunset.
● Other fasting-related rulings do not apply to them.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on selling gold or silver in installments or for a differed price?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
It is prohibited (haram) to sell gold or silver in installments or for a deferred price; rather, immediate hand-to-hand exchange (Taqabud) is mandatory, otherwise, it is considered usury (Riba). The Messenger of Allah ﷺ said: 'Gold for gold, silver for silver, wheat for wheat, barley for barley, dates for dates, and salt for salt—like for like, hand to hand. Whoever increases or asks for an increase has engaged in Riba; the receiver and the giver are the same in this regard.' (Narrated by Muslim). Furthermore, when exchanging new gold for used gold, they must be of equal weight, or it falls into Riba.
 
The permissible solution (al-makhraj) is for the merchant to purchase the used gold for cash first, and then sell the new gold for cash in a separate transaction. However, the price must be paid during the sitting of the contract (Majlis al-Aqd) for both deals. Alternatively, the jeweler may take the used gold with the intent of remodeling or repairing it, and then charge a fee for the craftsmanship or repair work. And Allah the Exalted knows best."

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.