Is it recommended (mustaḥabb) for the one offering a voluntary sacrifice (uḍḥiyyat taṭawwuʿ) to eat from its meat?
In the Name of Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
It is highly recommended (Mustahabb) for the person offering a voluntary Udhiyah (sacrificial animal) to eat from its meat, but it is not an obligatory requirement (Wajib). Allah the Almighty says {what means}: "So eat of them and feed the needy who do not beg and the beggar. Thus have We subjected them to you that you may be grateful." (Al-Hajj/ 36)
"So eat of them": This directive is an encouraging recommendation, not a binding command.
The Qani’ (the needy who do not beg): Refers to a poor person who refrains from asking people for help out of dignity.
The Mu’tarr (the beggar): Refers to a poor person who explicitly asks others for assistance. And Allah the Almighty Knows Best.
A man insulted the Divine Essence; is it obligatory for him to perform Ghusl?
Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
Insulting or blaspheming the Divine Essence (Dhat al-Ilahiyyah) constitutes apostasy (Riddah). The perpetrator of this grave sin must immediately repeat the two testimonies of faith (Shahadah) and sincerely repent to Allah the Exalted. It is recommended (Sunnah) for them to perform a ritual bath (Ghusl), though it is not a mandatory condition [for the validity of their return to Islam]. And Allah the Exalted knows best.
Does the 'aqīqah count as valid if it is slaughtered before the seventh day from the birth?
All praise is due to Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
The time during which it becomes permissible to slaughter the 'aqīqah begins from the moment the newborn is fully delivered from its mother's womb.
If the animal is slaughtered prior to the birth, it does not count as an 'aqīqah — it is simply considered an ordinary sheep slaughtered for its meat.
And Allah Almighty knows best.
What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No.
2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.
