Is it permissible to make up for missed fast after the beginning of the second half of the month of Sha`ban (the month before Ramadan)?
Yes, it is permissible, but one who had missed fasts should hasten to make up for them. As for the Hadith mentioned in this regard, the prohibition is for offering absolute voluntary fasting. And Allah Knows Best.
In life insurance with the Potash Company, enrollment is mandatory, and employees have the right to receive a cash amount from the insurance for surgeries and illnesses while employed by the company. Is the amount given by the insurance in this case permissible (Halal) or prohibited (Haram)?
Since the insurance is compulsory, then what the insurance company pays in return for medical treatment is similar to donation, and I pray to Allah The Almighty that this is lawful even if this service is deducted from your salary in return of it, so in this manner you take back some of the amount you paid in form of above treatment. And Allah Knows Best.
What is the ruling if hemorrhoid blood exits after completing ablution?
If this blood is exiting from outside the anus (due to the hemorrhoid protruding), it does not invalidate ablution, because blood exiting from the body from other than the two orifices does not invalidate ablution. If it exits from the anus (meaning from inside it), it invalidates ablution, and one must perform istinja' from it, wash the area of impurity, and repeat the ablution.
However, if this blood exits continuously such that no time remains sufficient for purification and prayer without it flowing, then it takes the ruling of urinary incontinence (sals al-bawl). One then cleanses from it after the time for each prayer enters, performs ablution immediately thereafter, and performs the obligatory prayer immediately. There is no liability upon him after that if something of it flows, and he may pray as many voluntary prayers as he wishes. If he wants to pray another obligatory prayer, he must cleanse himself and perform ablution. And Allah the Almighty knows best.
Is a wife considered divorced if her husband refused to go to bed with her (for sexual intercourse) for two months?
A wife doesn`t get divorced no matter for how long her husband refuses to have sex with her, and she had better go to court.