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Ijtihad & Taqlid
Author : Dr. Hassan Abu_Arqoub
Date Added : 27-01-2020

Ijtihad & Taqlid

 

 

Ijtihad and Taqlid represent a controversial issue for students of Sharia. This article will provide answers for the following questions: Who is a Mujtahid? What are the requirements of a Mujtahid? What are the levels of Mujtahids? Who is a Muqalid? Whom does a Muqalid follow? Is a Muqalid obligated to follow a particular Madhab? Is a Muqalid allowed to follow other Madhabs?

First: Ijtihad

Definition of Ijtihad:

Ijtihad refers to the effort and critical thinking necessary to arrive at a properly formulated legal conclusion.

Some rulings of Ijtihad:

Ijtihad is considered a religious duty for those qualified to perform it.

Ruling when there is no practitioner of Ijtihad in a certain era:

From mental and religious perspectives, a practitioner of Ijtihad could be lacking in a certain era; be he a Mujtahid Mutlaq "Absolute Mujtahid" or not.

Ruling when Ijtihad is performed on particular aspects of Islamic Jurisprudence:

Practicing Ijtihad on certain aspects of Islamic Jurisprudence is permissible because some Mujtahids are qualified in certain areas of jurisprudence.

Ruling when a Mujtahid delivers the correct ruling or makes a mistake:

When a Mujtahid utilizes his skill of judgment and comes to a right decision, he will have a double reward, but when he uses his judgement and commits a mistake, he will have a single reward.

Ruling on nullifying someone`s Ijtihad:

It isn`t permissible to nullify someone`s Ijtihad unless it contradicts a text from the Quran or Sunna, Ijma` or Qiyas.

Second: Taqlid

Definition of Taqlid:

Taqlid is to follow the opinion of a scholar without knowing the evidence on which it is based.

Some rulings of Taqlid:

It is incumbent on the non-practitioner of Ijtihad, whether he might be an ordinary person or a scholar who didn`t reach the level of Mujtahid Mutlaq, to follow a Mujtahid, because Allah The Almighty Says (What means): "ask the people of knowledge if you don`t know" [An-Nahil/43]. However, it isn`t permissible for the Mujtahid who has met the requirements of Ijtihad to follow the opinion of another scholar.

Ruling on following another Madhab (School of thought):

It isn`t incumbent on the one who hasn`t reached the level of Mujtahid  to follow a particular Madhab; rather, he may seek Fatwa from different Madhabs.

Ruling on following other than the four Madhabs:

Some scholars permitted following, on the individual level, opinions of scholars from other than the four Madhabs, but not for Fatwas and the justice system, provided that the opinions are well authenticated.

Some scholars banned following the opinions of other than the four Madhabs, because they weren`t documented, their conditions and restrictions are unknown and they didn`t reach us through many ensured lines of transmission.

 

The published article reflects the opinion of its author

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling of Islamic Law regarding one who slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, and is it permissible to slaughter the ewe if one knows it is pregnant?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
If a person slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, the fetus becomes lawful (ḥalāl) by virtue of its mother's slaughter (tabaʿan li-ummihā).
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.6/P.158): "A fetus found dead [after the mother's slaughter], or found alive but in a state resembling that of a slaughtered animal [i.e., dying shortly after], becomes lawful — whether or not it had grown fur — provided it is found in the womb of a mother that was lawfully slaughtered, whether her slaughter was by cutting the throat, or by an arrow or hunting dog sent after her. This is based on the ḥadīth: 'The slaughtering of the fetus is [effected by] the slaughtering of its mother' [narrated by al-Tirmidhī, who graded it ḥasan, and by Ibn Ḥibbān, who graded it ṣaḥīḥ] — meaning that the slaughter which rendered the mother lawful renders the fetus lawful as well, by virtue of following her; and because the fetus is one of her constituent parts, and her slaughter renders lawful all of her parts."
This ruling differs, however, from the case of one who knows from the outset that the ewe is pregnant [and intends to sacrifice her specifically as the udḥiyah while pregnant] — in which case, according to the Shāfi'ī school, she does not fulfill the requirement of a valid sacrifice.
It is stated in Ḥāshiyat al-Bujayrimī 'alā al-Khaṭīb (Vol.4/P.335): "A pregnant animal does not fulfill the requirement [of a valid sacrifice], and this is the authoritative position (al-mu'tamad), because pregnancy diminishes the quality of the meat. As for why such an animal is nevertheless counted as complete [i.e., fully valid] in matters of zakāh, that is because the intent there is reproduction (nasl), not the quality of the meat.". And Allah, the Most High, knows best.

I wish to purchase an online account (a gaming account), and its ownership will be transferred to me. However, my friend will purchase it on my behalf, and I will repay him in deferred installments with an added profit margin to account for the installment sale. What is the ruling of Islamic Law on this transaction?

 
All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
The ruling on selling electronic games depends on the ruling of the game itself: if the game is permissible, then selling it is likewise permissible. However, if the game contains Sharia violations that render playing it impermissible, then selling it in that case is neither valid nor permissible. Therefore, we advise the necessity of reviewing the Sharia guidelines for electronic games set forth in Fatwa No. (3369).
 
Accordingly, if the game is permissible, a person may purchase it, take legal possession of it, and subsequently sell it in deferred installments for a price higher than its purchase price. The General Iftaa' Department has permitted dealing through Murabaha, while emphasizing the necessity of observing the Sharia conditions required for this transaction; please refer to Fatwa No. (2861). And Allah Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on swearing an oath by the Prophet ﷺ, and does such an oath take effect according to Imām Aḥmad ibn Ḥanbal, requiring expiation upon its breach?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Swearing an oath by a created being is disliked (makrūh) in our Shāfiʿī school. Shaykh al-Islām Imām al-Nawawī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states: "Swearing by a created being is disliked — such as swearing by the Prophet, the Kaʿbah, Jibrīl, the Companions, or the Prophet's family. Al-Shāfiʿī, may Allah have mercy upon him, said: 'I fear that swearing by other than Allah the Almighty may constitute an act of disobedience.' The scholars of the school explained this to mean: that is, something forbidden and sinful — indicating that he had some hesitation in the matter. Al-Imām stated: the established position of the school is that it is categorically not forbidden, but rather disliked. Furthermore, whoever swears by a created being, his oath does not take effect and no expiation (kaffārah) is required if he breaks it." [Rawḍat al-Ṭālibīn wa ʿUmdat al-Muftīn, Vol. 11/P.6]
According to the Ḥanbalī school, however, expiation becomes obligatory upon one who swears by our master the Prophet ﷺ and then breaks his oath. Imām al-Bahūtī al-Ḥanbalī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states: "No expiation is required for swearing by other than Allah the Almighty, even if the oath is broken — because expiation was made obligatory for swearing by Allah and His attributes, out of reverence for His names, and nothing else is equal to Him in this regard... except in the case of swearing by our Prophet Muḥammad ﷺ, for expiation becomes obligatory when one swears by him and then breaks the oath. This was explicitly stated in the narration of Abū Ṭālib, because he is one of the two conditions of the two testimonies of faith by which a disbeliever becomes a Muslim. Ibn ʿAqīl held the view that swearing by any of the other prophets, peace and blessings be upon them all, carries the same ruling." [Sharḥ Muntahā al-Irādāt, Vol. 3/P.441]. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

I bought an apartment, and I am saving money to pay the remaining balance of its price — is zakāh obligatory on this money?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh is obligatory on all saved/hoarded wealth. Once the total wealth reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah— equivalent to the value of 85 grams of pure 24-karat gold) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it, zakāh becomes obligatory at a rate of (2.5%) — even if the wealth is earmarked for basic future needs, and even if the wealth's owner is in debt. Debt does not prevent the obligation of zakāh, nor is it deducted when calculating the zakāh due, based on the general and unrestricted wording of all the Qur'anic verses commanding zakāh, which draw no distinction between someone in debt and anyone else.
It is stated in ‘Umdat as-Sālik, from the books of the Shāfi‘ī school: "If someone possesses exactly the niṣāb, and owes an equivalent amount in debt, zakāh remains obligatory on what is in his possession, and the debt does not prevent this obligation" — meaning, the obligation of zakāh on what is presently in his possession.
The ḥawl (annual cycle) recognized for zakāh, as well as for the other sharī‘ah obligations that Allah, the Exalted, has imposed upon Muslims, is the Hijrī (lunar) year. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

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