Articles

Statement on Prohibiting the Violation of Honor
Author : The General Iftaa' Department
Date Added : 05-03-2014

Praise be to Allah, Peace and Blessings be upon the Seal of His messengers, Prophet Mohammad and upon his Family and companions.

Allah ,The Exalted, Said (What means): "Say: "My Lord forbids only indecencies, such of them as are apparent and such as are hidden, and sin, and wrongful insolence, and that you associate with God that for which He never revealed any warrant, and that you say concerning God that which you do not know'." [Al-A`raf/33].

The Islamic Sharia's, which was conveyed to the Master of all human beings,  Prophet Muhammad (PBUH), organizes societies and civilizations, spreads mercy and love among people, and fights all sorts of aggression for all such acts are not related to Islam.

 Amongst the main objectives (Maqasid) of Islamic Sharia are: protecting  honor and lineage as well as establishing the family on  sound bases  that are in line with Sharia rules which have made marriage a sacred bond and a binding covenant for establishing the family and protecting it from offence and corruption.

It is a major sin in Islam not to treat Muslims` honor and property as sacred; therefore, penalties have been laid down as a consequence both in the life of this world and the Hereafter. Any violation in this regard is unjust to society and self for Allah does not love those who are unjust.

It has plagued Muslims today that some of those who wear clothing of scholars have emerged and taken advantage of some of the modern means of communication to publicize some suspicious calls involving the manipulation of religious texts, and taking them out of their context to serve certain ends that are not in the best interest of the Muslim nation (Ummah). These calls distort the beautiful image of Islam and its noble purposes as well as spread disagreement among Muslims.

A reflection of the above is the unlawful calls, which propagate the establishment of families without relying on legitimate marriage contracts that are in tune with Sharia rulings. This is despite the fact that family affairs have been explained in Islamic Sharia with the minutest details.

The General Iftaa` Department  warns against invalid opinions that take the form of Fatawa, but ,actually, neither represent legal Fatawa nor religiously acceptable opinions .This is because they are not based on sound evidence, not delivered by qualified scholars and include evident erroneous rulings which contradict the objectives of Sharia's.

May Allah keep this country safe and secure along with the rest of the Muslim countries, and all praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds.

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling if someone wipes his head then shaves it - must he repeat it?

If a person performing ablution shaves his head after wiping it during ablution, he is not required to re-wipe his head or repeat the ablution. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on one who vows to fast a specific or non-specific year? Are the two Eids, the days of Tashreeq, Ramadan, and the days of menstruation and postnatal bleeding included in them? And do these days break the consecutiveness if it was intended?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
If someone makes a vow (Nadr) to fast a specific, designated year, this vow does not include the days of Eid, the days of Tashreeq (the three days following Eid al-Adha), Ramadan, or the days of menstruation (Hayd) and postnatal bleeding (Nifas). Furthermore, there is no requirement to make up (Qada) these specific days.
 
However, if someone vows to fast a year that is not specifically designated (i.e., any twelve-month period) and stipulates that the fasting must be consecutive, they are bound by that condition. They must not fast on the days of Eid, during Ramadan, or during menstruation, but they are required to make up these days afterward—with the exception of the days of menstruation and postnatal bleeding, which do not need to be made up.
 
It is stated in Hashiyat al-Bajuri ‘ala Sharh Ibn Qasim ({Vol.2/P.606): 'If one vows to fast a specific year, the Eid, Tashreeq, Ramadan, and days of menstruation or postnatal bleeding are not included. This is because Ramadan does not accept any fast other than its own, and the others do not accept fasting at all. Therefore, they do not enter into the vow, and no makeup is required for them because they are legally excluded—contrary to Al-Rafi’i regarding menstruation and postnatal bleeding.
 
If one vows to fast a non-designated year: if they stipulated consecutiveness (Tatuabu’) in their vow, they must fulfill it; otherwise, they are not bound to it. Consecutiveness is not broken by the days that do not enter into the specific year vow (Eid, Tashreeq, Ramadan, menstruation, and postnatal bleeding). However, one must make up the days missed—excluding the time of menstruation and postnatal bleeding—immediately following the end of the year. As for the time of menstruation and postnatal bleeding, it is not made up, contrary to Ibn al-Rif’ah, who argued that it must be made up just like Ramadan.' And Allah the Exalted knows best.

What is the ruling on reciting the Noble Qur’an during menstruation?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
It is impermissible for a woman in menses, a woman in postnatal bleeding, or a person in a state of major ritual impurity to recite any part of the Noble Qur’an with the intention of recitation, even from a mobile phone or a computer, and even if the recitation is from memory. It is narrated on the authority of ʿAlī ibn Abī Ṭālib (may Allah be pleased with him) that the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) “was not prevented, or he said kept back, from the Qur’an by anything except janābah (major ritual impurity).” It was narrated by Abū Dāwūd and al-Tirmidhī, who said: “Ḥasan ṣaḥīḥ.”
Janābah and menstruation are one and the same in that both constitute a major ritual impurity. Just as a woman is commanded by Allah Almighty to pray, fast, and recite the Noble Qur’an during her period of purity, she is likewise commanded to refrain from these during the period of her excuse.
For further reference, see the fatwas: (Fatwas of Shaykh Nūḥ, Fatwa no. 27) and (248). And Allah Almighty knows best.