Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(159): "Ruling on Dividing Part of the Blood Money Accepted by one of the Victim`s Heirs from the Killer`s Family, in Intentional Killing, amongst other Heirs, each according to his Share as Stipulated in Sharia"

Date Added : 02-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(159) (25/2010) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Dividing Part of the Blood Money Accepted Amongest Heirs in Intentional Killing, each according to his Share as Stipulated in Sharia"

Date: 17/1/1432 AH, corresponding to 23/12/2010 AD.

 

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds; and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

During its twelfth session held on the above date, the Board reviewed the following question:

Five years ago, my son was intentionally killed in Saudi Arabia by a Saudi citizen. Two weeks passed over his marriage to a Jordanian woman before he was murdered. When the killer was sent to court, his family offered (25) million Riyals as Diyah (blood money) in return for waiving our right to Qisas (retribution). I along with his father insisted on Qisas and obtained an authorization to that end from all the heirs of my son including his wife.

Several years later, the court ruled for Qisas. However, one hour before the execution of that sentence, we were told that it has been delayed and I was told to check with the Saudi Ministry of Interior.

When I arrived there, I found out that my son`s widow has waived her right to Qisas in return for (5) million Riyals, and so the killer`s life will be spared and we will receive (25) million Riyals as Diyah.

Is the five million Riyals received by my son`s widow hers or should that sum be divided amongst his heirs as stipulated in Sharia.

 After prolonged deliberations, the Board decided:

The five million Riyals received by the victim`s widow from the killer`s family must be divided amongst the heirs of the killed in accordance with Sharia. This is the opinion of the Malikite jurists and it is most compatible with the principles of justice, the provisions of Sharia and  the juristic principle pertaining to warding off harm. 

It is stated: "If one of the victim`s heirs waived his right to Qisas in return for an amount, which is more or less than his share from the Diyah stipulated in Sharia, other heirs become obliged to waive their right to Qisas and take their share from the Diyah as well." [Hashyat Ibn Abdeen Ala-Asharih Al-Khabeer].

As clearly stated in the aforementioned quotation, if one of the two guardians of the victim, in intentional killing, waived his right to Qisas against taking more or less than his share in the Diyah, then the other guardian is obliged to follow suit. This is also supported by the Hadith of the Prophet (PBUH): "There is no injury nor return of injury". And Allah Knows Best.

 

Head of the Iftaa` Board, The Grand Mufti of the Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan, His Grace Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh

Vice Head of the Iftaa` Board, Dr. Ahmad Hilayel

Dr. Yahia Al-Botoosh/ Member

His Eminence, Sheikh Sa`ied Hijjawi/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Essa

Judge Sarrie Attieh

Dr. Abdulrahman Ibbdah/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Oklah/ Member

Dr. Abduln`nassir Abu Al Bass`al/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Gharaibeh/ Member

Executive Secretary of the Iftaa` Board, Sheikh Mohammad Al-Hunaiti

Decision Number [ Previous | Next ]


Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on performing istinja' after passing wind from the anus?

Ablution is invalidated by passing wind from the anus, even without a smell. Only ablution becomes obligatory from it. Istinja' is not obligatory nor recommended. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling of Islamic Law on a menstruating woman (ḥā'iḍ) reciting the Islamic ruqyah (Qur'anic/spiritual healing)?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is permissible for a person in a state of janābah (major ritual impurity), or a menstruating woman (ḥā'iḍ), or a woman in postpartum bleeding (nufasā'), to recite for the purpose of ruqyah (spiritual/Qur'anic healing), even if this includes some verses of the Noble Qur'an — whether recited from memory or by looking at the Muṣ-ḥaf (the physical copy of the Qur'an) without touching or carrying it — provided that the intention behind the recitation is ruqyah, protection (taḥṣīn), and remembrance (dhikr), not the intention of tilāwah (Qur'anic recitation as an act of worship in itself). This remains permissible even if what is recited is an entire sūrah, such as Sūrat al-Mulk.
Imam al-Khaṭīb ash-Shirbīnī (raḥimahullāh) said: "It is lawful for a person in janābah to utter its [the Qur'an's] remembrances and other content — such as its admonitions, its narratives, and its rulings — so long as it is not with the intention of [reciting] Qur'an. [This is] like his saying upon mounting [a vehicle]: 'Glory be to Him Who has subjected this to us, and we could never have accomplished this [by ourselves]' [Sūrat az-Zukhruf: 13] — meaning, [could never have] been capable of it — or upon a calamity: 'Indeed we belong to Allah, and indeed to Him we shall return'... In fact, my teacher, ash-Shihāb ar-Ramlī, issued a fatwā that even if he recited the entire Qur'an without the intention of [reciting] Qur'an, it would be permissible." [Summarized from Mughnī al-Muḥtāj, Vol. 1/P.217] And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

If a woman becomes pure from menstruation shortly after Fajr in Ramadan, what is required of her?

If a woman becomes pure (from menstrual period) after Fajr, even shortly after, it is recommended (but not obligatory) for her to refrain from eating and drinking for the rest of the day. However, she must make up for that day after Ramadan.
She will be rewarded for both refraining from eating (imsak) and making up the fast (qada) since she was menstruating for part of the day.

Is a wife considered divorced if her husband refused to go to bed with her (for sexual intercourse) for two months?

A wife doesn`t get divorced no matter for how long her husband refuses to have sex with her, and she had better go to court.