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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(48): “Ruling on Publishing or Copying Books without Obtaining the Permission of their Authors“

Date Added : 02-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(48): “Ruling on Publishing or Copying Books without Obtaining the Permission of their Author“

Date: 24/4/1422 AH corresponding to 15/7/2001 AD.

 

The Board has received the following question:

What is the ruling when some owners of bookshops, speed-duplication shops, and presses produce copies of books and sell them without any consideration to copyrights reserved to their authors and publishers?

Answer: All success is due to Allah.

The Board views that a book, which is the fruit of hard work and tremendous efforts of an author, is considered from the valuable benefits and a private property of his, and that none is allowed to reprint it or publish it, save with his permission. However, copying some pages for academic benefit is permissible, provided that the information is attributed to the original author.

Moreover, the author`s copyright is transferred to his eligible heirs after his passing away, but if he had no heirs, then it is permissible for the public to benefit from it because, in principle, knowledge is permissible. Therefore, printing his books and publishing them become permissible without obtaining his permission since spreading knowledge is amongst the public interests which people should be aware of.

Amongst the innovated books are the reproduced books of heritage and manuscripts. As the reproducers of these spared no effort in editing, comparing, classifying, explaining, adding inflections to words, providing headings and indices, and giving them an innovative shape, then they are considered their sole property, and none is allowed to copy or publish them, save with their permission.

Consequently, the act of copying and selling books, undertaken by the parties mentioned in the above question, without obtaining the permission of the author and abiding by the provisions of Sharia in this regard is unlawful and a violation to the rights of the author and the publisher. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izz Al-Deen Al-TamimiDr. Mohammad Abu Yahia

Dr. Abdulsalam Al-Abbadi

Dr. Yousef Gheezaan

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri

Sheikh Saeid Hijjawi

Sheikh Na`eim Mojahid

Sheikh Mahmoud Shwayyaat

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What are the Sunnah acts of fasting?

● Delaying Suhoor (pre-dawn meal) as long as there is no risk of Fajr beginning.
● Hastening Iftar (breaking the fast) immediately after confirming sunset.
● Performing I‘tikaf, especially during the last ten nights of Ramadan.
● Reciting the Quran frequently.
● Avoiding idle and useless talk.
● Being generous and charitable.
● Guarding oneself from desires.
● Purifying oneself from major impurity (janabah) before Fajr.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses cash reaching the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah), and then uses part of it to purchase gold before the ḥawl (lunar year) is complete — must he pay zakāh on all of it [combined], or only on the remaining cash, excluding the gold?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Gold acquired for hoarding and saving is subject to zakāh once it reaches the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for Zakah) — when combined with any cash held — and once a full ḥawl (lunar year) has elapsed over it. The starting point for calculating this ḥawl is the ḥawl of the paper currency [used to purchase it], which had already reached the niṣāb and was then used to purchase the gold.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.78): "As for someone who sells silver in exchange for gold, or vice versa, zakāh remains obligatory upon it, since he builds [the calculation of] its ḥawl upon [the ḥawl established at the time of] the original transaction [i.e., when the wealth was first acquired]."
This has already been explained in detail in Fatwa No. 2670 — please refer to it.
And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling on swearing on the Holy Quran and breaking that oath?

It is impermissible to swear on the Holy Quran in vain, and it is also impermissible to subject it to such an act since breaking the oath after swearing on the Quran entails an expiation.

Is it permissible for a woman to ride a taxi without a Mahram (unmarriageable kin) in order to attend a gathering of knowledge?

It is permissible for the woman to pursue the knowledge that she needs in order to perform the religious requirements due on her if there was nobody to teach her at home, provided that there is no temptation involved. Moreover, we don`t recommend that she rides a taxi without a Mahram although such an act isn`t from the forbidden Khulwah (seclusion).

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