عربي
Home


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(48): “Ruling on Publishing or Copying Books without Obtaining the Permission of their Authors“

Date Added : 02-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(48): “Ruling on Publishing or Copying Books without Obtaining the Permission of their Author“

Date: 24/4/1422 AH corresponding to 15/7/2001 AD.

 

The Board has received the following question:

What is the ruling when some owners of bookshops, speed-duplication shops, and presses produce copies of books and sell them without any consideration to copyrights reserved to their authors and publishers?

Answer: All success is due to Allah.

The Board views that a book, which is the fruit of hard work and tremendous efforts of an author, is considered from the valuable benefits and a private property of his, and that none is allowed to reprint it or publish it, save with his permission. However, copying some pages for academic benefit is permissible, provided that the information is attributed to the original author.

Moreover, the author`s copyright is transferred to his eligible heirs after his passing away, but if he had no heirs, then it is permissible for the public to benefit from it because, in principle, knowledge is permissible. Therefore, printing his books and publishing them become permissible without obtaining his permission since spreading knowledge is amongst the public interests which people should be aware of.

Amongst the innovated books are the reproduced books of heritage and manuscripts. As the reproducers of these spared no effort in editing, comparing, classifying, explaining, adding inflections to words, providing headings and indices, and giving them an innovative shape, then they are considered their sole property, and none is allowed to copy or publish them, save with their permission.

Consequently, the act of copying and selling books, undertaken by the parties mentioned in the above question, without obtaining the permission of the author and abiding by the provisions of Sharia in this regard is unlawful and a violation to the rights of the author and the publisher. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izz Al-Deen Al-TamimiDr. Mohammad Abu Yahia

Dr. Abdulsalam Al-Abbadi

Dr. Yousef Gheezaan

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri

Sheikh Saeid Hijjawi

Sheikh Na`eim Mojahid

Sheikh Mahmoud Shwayyaat

 

Decision Number [ Previous | Next ]


Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on a mother giving the Zakat of her wealth to her children?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
It is permissible for a mother to give her children from the Zakat if they are among those who are eligible for it—such as being poor (Fuqara), possessing no wealth, and not being sufficiently provided for by the maintenance (Nafaqah) of others. This is based on the statement of the Messenger of Allah ﷺ regarding Zaynab, the wife of 'Abdullah ibn Mas'ud (may Allah be pleased with them both): (Your husband and your children are the most deserving of those upon whom you spend in charity) [Narrated by Al-Bukhari].
 
It is stated in [Al-Hawi al-Kabir, Vol. 8/P.537]: 'As for the wife, it is permissible for her to pay her Zakat to her husband from all the designated shares... Our evidence is the generality of the saying of Allah the Almighty: "Zakat expenditures are only for the poor and for the needy", and the Hadith of Abu Hurairah that the Prophet ﷺ said to Zaynab, the wife of 'Abdullah ibn Mas'ud: (Your husband and your children are the most deserving of those upon whom you spend), and this is taken in its general sense.' And Allah the Exalted knows best.

Is the one offering the sacrifice liable if its meat spoils?

Praise be to Allah, and prayers and peace be upon our Master the Messenger of Allah.
 
If the meat (of the sacrifice) spoils due to the negligence of the one offering the sacrifice in preserving it, or due to improper storage, then he is liable to compensate for the portion due to the poor (which is estimated as half a kilogram of meat). If the sacrifice was a vowed (mandatory) one, then he is liable for all of it.
 
However, if he was not negligent, then there is no liability upon him, because its ruling is the ruling of a trust (like an item left in someone's care). And Allah Almighty knows best.

Is it obligatory to have the intention for each day of fasting, or is one intention sufficient for the whole month?

The intention is obligatory for each day of Ramadan because each day is an independent act of worship separate from the others.
The intention must be made at night before the break of dawn, as the Prophetﷺ said: "Whoever does not intend fasting at night, there is no fast for him." [An-Nasa’i] 
And he also said: "Whoever does not firmly resolve to fast before dawn, there is no fast for him." [At-Tirmidhi, Abu Dawood, and An-Nasa’i]
Whoever wakes up and eats Suhoor while mindful of fasting has made the intention. Likewise, one who firmly intends at any moment during the night to fast the next day has also fulfilled the intention.

Does the fast become invalid if water from rinsing the mouth reaches the stomach while performing ablution?

If water reaches the stomach without the fasting person exceeding normal rinsing or being excessive, their fast remains valid.
However, if they exceed the normal practice or exaggerate in rinsing, causing water to enter the stomach, their fast is invalid.
This is because excessiveness in rinsing is prohibited for a fasting person, as the Prophetﷺ said: "Exaggerate inhaling water during ablution, except when you are fasting." [Narrated by the Four Imams]
Transgression (Ta‘addi) refers to rinsing the mouth more than three times, while exaggeration (Mubalaghah) includes gargling, drawing water deep into the nasal passages, or filling the mouth with water in an unusual manner.

See More