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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(106): “Ruling on Foreign Exchange Offices“

Date Added : 02-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(106) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:  

“ Ruling on Foreign Exchange Offices “

Date: 26/4/1472 AH, 24/5/2006 AD

 

 

Question: What is the ruling on foreign exchange offices that deal in foreign exchange speculation, American Stock Exchange (AMEX), gold, silver and petrol.

The way such offices operate can be clarified as follows: The client makes a deposit e.g.(5000) dollars and the office offers him credit facilities up to (50.000), but when the loss reaches (5000), the client loses his money and the office closes his account and the opposite is true in case of profit?

Answer:

The Board is of the view that such transaction is forbidden in Islamic Law {Sharia} because the money which the office lends to the client is conditioned by trading in foreign exchange with none other than it. In this case, it is a tied loan: no credit facilities to the client unless he adheres to dealing with the office alone. Moreover, the office`s profit is assured while the client`s isn`t, and this is tantamount to gambling.

This is in addition to the fact that this transaction is conducted without mutual reception in the place where the transaction was concluded. Also, the office sells and buys that which isn`t in its possession and this has been disapproved and forbidden by the Prophet (PBUH). And Allah Knows Best.

 

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board

Chief Justice/ Dr. Ahmad Hilayel

Dr. Abdusalam Al-Abbadi                                      Dr. Yousef Ghaidahn

Dr. Abdolmajeed As-Salaheen                              Sheikh Sai`ed Hijjawi

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakri                                         Sheikh Abdulkareem Khasawneh

Sheikh Na`iem Mujjahid

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on forgetting an integral of the prayer?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
Whoever forgets an integral (Rukn) of the prayer and remembers it before reaching the equivalent point in the subsequent unit (Rak'ah), must return to it (i.e., perform it) and complete his prayer, then perform the prostration of forgetfulness (Sujud al-Sahw) at the end of his prayer. However, if he remembers it after reaching the equivalent point in the subsequent unit, the Rak'ah in which the integral was forgotten is invalidated, and the current unit takes its place; he then completes a full Rak'ah to compensate and performs the prostration of forgetfulness.
 
It is stated in Nihayat al-Muhtaj ila Sharh al-Minhaj (Vol.1/P.543): 'If he becomes certain at the end of his prayer, or after the Salam—provided the interval is not long according to custom and he has not stepped on an impurity—that he omitted a prostration from the final Rak'ah, he must perform it and repeat the Tashahhud, as his previous Tashahhud occurred before its proper place. If the omission was from a Rak'ah other than the final one, he must perform a full Rak'ah, because the deficient unit was completed by a prostration from the subsequent one, rendering the rest of that subsequent unit void.' And Allah the Exalted knows best.

What is the ruling on a person in a state of major impurity (junub) walking or eating before performing the ritual bath?

It is from the Sunnah for a Muslim to hasten to perform the ritual bath for major impurity. However, if he delays it, he does not sin provided he does not miss the prayer. It is permissible for the junub to walk, eat, drink, and sleep. It is recommended for him to perform ablution before these actions to reduce the state of impurity, although the best is for him to perform the ritual bath. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Does burping (belching) break the fast?

Burping does not break the fast. However, if anything comes up from the stomach, the fasting person must spit it out and rinse their mouth to cleanse it.
If they swallow it intentionally while being able to expel it, or if they swallow their saliva before rinsing their mouth, their fast is invalidated.

Is a wife considered divorced if her husband refused to go to bed with her (for sexual intercourse) for two months?

A wife doesn`t get divorced no matter for how long her husband refuses to have sex with her, and she had better go to court.

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