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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(248): "Ruling on Freezing Woman`s Eggs"

Date Added : 06-12-2017

 

Resolution No.(248)(17/2017) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on Freezing Woman`s Eggs"

Date: 2/Rabi` Al-Thani/1439, corresponding to 21/11/2017.

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all his family and companions.

During its 13th session held on the above date, the Board reviewed a question sent via the Electronic Website of the General Iftaa` Department and reads as follows:

I`m twenty eight years old and I`m undergoing chemotherapy. I have marital problems and filed for divorce. My question is: Is it permissible to withdraw eggs from my ovaries to preserve them for future use, in case I was married to another man, or should divorce take place first, then observe my Iddah (Waiting period after divorce or death of husband), then undergo that procedure?

After deliberating, the Board arrived at the following:

Freezing eggs or sperms is among the innovative matters resulting from 

medical advancement. Therefore, clarifying the ruling of Sharia on such matters should rest on two general rules of Sharia:

First: In principle, making use of medical treatment is lawful since the Messenger of Allah said: "Make use of medical treatment, for Allah has not made a disease without appointing a remedy for it, with the exception of one disease, namely old age." {Ahmad}.

Second: Preserving lineage and observing the sanctity of the wedlock.

If the owners of these eggs and sperms adhered to fertilizing them during valid marriage contracts, there is no harm in doing that when necessary, whether their withdrawal and freezing was done during singlehood or a past marriage. What counts, here, is observing the sanctity of the fertilization by performing it during a valid marriage contract for both spouses. However, it is safer and more prudent for the woman to freeze her eggs and fertilize them within one valid marriage contract, and this is more preferable. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Chairman of Iftaa` Board,

Grand Mufti of Jordan,

Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh

Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh, Member

Prof. Abdullah Al-Fawaz, Member

Dr. Ahmad Al-Hasanat, Member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Esa, Member

Dr. Majid Darawsheh, Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Al-Hijjawi, Member

Judge Khalid Woraikat, Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Zo`bi, Member

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is the Saying "Whatever is Taken by the Sword of Shyness is Forbidden" an Authentic Ḥadīth?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
The saying "Whatever is taken by the sword of shyness is forbidden" is not an authentic ḥadīth, though its underlying meaning is sound. The established sharʿī principle is that a Muslim's wealth is not lawful for anyone to take except with his wholehearted consent, as Allah the Almighty says {what means}: "O you who have believed, do not consume one another's wealth unjustly, but only [in lawful] business by mutual consent." [Al-Nisā/ 29] And the Messenger of Allah ﷺ said: "Listen to me and you will live well: do not wrong others, do not wrong others, do not wrong others. Indeed, a man's wealth is not lawful except with his full, willing consent." (Reported by Aḥmad in his Musnad.) Whatever is taken through the pressure of shyness or social embarrassment runs directly counter to genuine, wholehearted consent.
The jurists have explicitly stated that whatever is taken by means of the "sword of shyness" carries the same ruling as that which is taken by coercion — it must be returned to its rightful owner.
Ibn Ḥajar al-Haytamī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states in al-Fatāwā al-Kubrā (Vol.3/P.30): "Do you not see the reported scholarly consensus that whoever has something taken from him purely out of shyness, without his genuine consent, does not pass ownership of it to the one who took it? They reasoned that this constitutes a form of coercion through the 'sword of shyness,' comparable to coercion at the point of an actual sword. Indeed, many people would rather submit to the literal sword and endure the pain of its wound than submit to this first kind of coercion, out of fear for their dignity and standing — which people of sound judgment hold dear and guard most fiercely." And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on swearing an oath by the Prophet ﷺ, and does such an oath take effect according to Imām Aḥmad ibn Ḥanbal, requiring expiation upon its breach?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Swearing an oath by a created being is disliked (makrūh) in our Shāfiʿī school. Shaykh al-Islām Imām al-Nawawī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states: "Swearing by a created being is disliked — such as swearing by the Prophet, the Kaʿbah, Jibrīl, the Companions, or the Prophet's family. Al-Shāfiʿī, may Allah have mercy upon him, said: 'I fear that swearing by other than Allah the Almighty may constitute an act of disobedience.' The scholars of the school explained this to mean: that is, something forbidden and sinful — indicating that he had some hesitation in the matter. Al-Imām stated: the established position of the school is that it is categorically not forbidden, but rather disliked. Furthermore, whoever swears by a created being, his oath does not take effect and no expiation (kaffārah) is required if he breaks it." [Rawḍat al-Ṭālibīn wa ʿUmdat al-Muftīn, Vol. 11/P.6]
According to the Ḥanbalī school, however, expiation becomes obligatory upon one who swears by our master the Prophet ﷺ and then breaks his oath. Imām al-Bahūtī al-Ḥanbalī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states: "No expiation is required for swearing by other than Allah the Almighty, even if the oath is broken — because expiation was made obligatory for swearing by Allah and His attributes, out of reverence for His names, and nothing else is equal to Him in this regard... except in the case of swearing by our Prophet Muḥammad ﷺ, for expiation becomes obligatory when one swears by him and then breaks the oath. This was explicitly stated in the narration of Abū Ṭālib, because he is one of the two conditions of the two testimonies of faith by which a disbeliever becomes a Muslim. Ibn ʿAqīl held the view that swearing by any of the other prophets, peace and blessings be upon them all, carries the same ruling." [Sharḥ Muntahā al-Irādāt, Vol. 3/P.441]. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Does undergoing surgery under anesthesia break the fast?

Anesthesia itself does not break the fast because anesthetic gases have no physical substance (jirm), and subcutaneous anesthesia injections do not reach the body cavity (jauf). However, this is on condition that the person is conscious at some point during the fasting hours:
● If they were awake at the beginning of the day, their fast remains valid.
● If they wake up even for a moment before sunset, their fast is also valid.
However, if the surgery involves the entry of foreign substances into the body cavity, their fast is invalidated, and they must make up for that day later.

What is the ruling on performing voluntary (nafl) prayer during the time of istiwā' (the sun's zenith) on the day of Jumu‘ah (Friday), and is this ruling specific to someone who has come to the mosque to perform the Jumu‘ah prayer?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is permissible to perform voluntary (nafl) prayer during the time of istiwā' (the sun's zenith, i.e., its highest point before noon) on the day of Jumu‘ah (Friday) — whether for someone who is attending the Friday prayer or someone who is not, and whether they are among the people obligated to attend it or not.
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.1/P.310): "The more correct position (al-aṣaḥḥ) is that prayer is permissible during this time without restriction — regardless of whether the person will be attending the Jumu‘ah prayer or not." And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

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