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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(248): "Ruling on Freezing Woman`s Eggs"

Date Added : 06-12-2017

 

Resolution No.(248)(17/2017) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on Freezing Woman`s Eggs"

Date: 2/Rabi` Al-Thani/1439, corresponding to 21/11/2017.

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Muhammad and upon all his family and companions.

During its 13th session held on the above date, the Board reviewed a question sent via the Electronic Website of the General Iftaa` Department and reads as follows:

I`m twenty eight years old and I`m undergoing chemotherapy. I have marital problems and filed for divorce. My question is: Is it permissible to withdraw eggs from my ovaries to preserve them for future use, in case I was married to another man, or should divorce take place first, then observe my Iddah (Waiting period after divorce or death of husband), then undergo that procedure?

After deliberating, the Board arrived at the following:

Freezing eggs or sperms is among the innovative matters resulting from 

medical advancement. Therefore, clarifying the ruling of Sharia on such matters should rest on two general rules of Sharia:

First: In principle, making use of medical treatment is lawful since the Messenger of Allah said: "Make use of medical treatment, for Allah has not made a disease without appointing a remedy for it, with the exception of one disease, namely old age." {Ahmad}.

Second: Preserving lineage and observing the sanctity of the wedlock.

If the owners of these eggs and sperms adhered to fertilizing them during valid marriage contracts, there is no harm in doing that when necessary, whether their withdrawal and freezing was done during singlehood or a past marriage. What counts, here, is observing the sanctity of the fertilization by performing it during a valid marriage contract for both spouses. However, it is safer and more prudent for the woman to freeze her eggs and fertilize them within one valid marriage contract, and this is more preferable. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Chairman of Iftaa` Board,

Grand Mufti of Jordan,

Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh

Sheikh Abdulkareem Al-Khasawneh, Member

Prof. Abdullah Al-Fawaz, Member

Dr. Ahmad Al-Hasanat, Member

Dr. Mohammad Khair Al-Esa, Member

Dr. Majid Darawsheh, Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Al-Hijjawi, Member

Judge Khalid Woraikat, Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Zo`bi, Member

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Summarized Fatawaa

Who is "the poor" entitled to receive Zakah (obligatory charity)?

The poor is the one who has neither money nor a source of living, or has either of them, but it isn`t sufficient such as being in need for a hundred/JDs, and having an income of forty/JDs only.

Is it permissible for one who sacrifices on behalf of another, with the latter's permission, to eat from the sacrifice?

It is permissible for someone who sacrificed on behalf of another with their permission to eat from it with their permission, and they stand in their place (act as their representative) in distributing it.
 
It is stated in Nihayat al-Muhtaj ila Sharh al-Minhaj (Vol.8/P.141): "And he—meaning the one sacrificing on his own behalf, provided he has not apostatized—has the right to eat from a voluntary sacrifice and his sacrificial gift; rather, it is recommended. As for an obligatory sacrifice, it is forbidden for him to eat from it, whether it was designated as such initially or as a liability in his dhimmah. And excluded by what has preceded is if he sacrifices on behalf of another, or if he apostatized, then it is not permissible for him to eat from it, just as it is absolutely impermissible to feed a disbeliever from it."(The text I found indicates the impermissibility of eating) ???
 
And it is stated in Hashiyat al-Jamal ‘ala Sharh al-Manhaj (Vol.5/P.262): "If a person offers a sacrifice on behalf of a living person with their permission, does he act as their representative in distributing it—on the grounds that permission to sacrifice is permission to distribute it—or does it depend on their explicit permission? This requires consideration, but the first view is not far-fetched." And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is a person rewarded for refraining from all that breaks their fast when required to do so, and is it considered a valid fast?

If a person eats or drinks thinking that Fajr has not yet arrived, but then someone informs them that Fajr had already begun, they must refrain from eating for the rest of the day and make up the fast later.
If they observe the required restraint (imsak), they will be rewarded for obeying the command because fulfilling an obligation brings reward.
However, this is not considered a valid fast in terms of rulings. For example:
● It is not disliked (makruh) for them to use a miswak after noon.
● They are not encouraged to hasten the breaking of the fast at sunset.
● Other fasting-related rulings do not apply to them.

What is the ruling on the cessation of blood after (40) days from delivery, but later continued sporadically during two days of Ramadan?

Once postpartum bleeding (Nifas) ceases, and the woman is certain that it won`t reoccur, then she becomes ritually pure and so she is free to make Ghusl (purificatory bath), pray, and fast. If the bleeding reoccurs before fifteen days from its cessation, and before the end of (60) days after delivery, then the ruling on postpartum bleeding is effective, and her fasting and prayer are null and void, thus she must make up the fasting that she missed and not the prayer during those particular days.

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