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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(225): "Ruling on the Zakat Fund`s Delaying the Payment of the Zakat Surplus till the Coming Year"

Date Added : 28-11-2016

Resolution No.(225) by the Board of Iftaa, Research and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on the Zakat Fund`s Delaying the Payment of the Zakat Surplus till the Coming Year"

Date: 25/Sha`ban/1437 AH, corresponding to 1/6/2016 AD.

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
During its seventh session held on the above date, the Board reviewed the question received from the Zakat Fund`s Director-General, and  reads as follows: 
The Zakat Fund pays a total of (2,500,000) as monthly allowances to (3000) poor families from the Zakat money it receives. If these revenue are equal to what the Fund pays to the poor families, then there is no harm in that; but if they aren`t, then the surplus should be delayed to the following years so as for the Fund to cover those allowances. Does this contradict Sharia?
After deliberating, the Board decided the following:
In principle, Zakat must be paid immediately because it is an acknowledged right for the beggar and the deprived. This right is due by the end of each lunar year since it is forbidden to delay giving rights to whom they belong. Al-Khateeb Ash-Shirbini said: "Zakat must be paid immediately because its recipients are in need for it." {Moghni Al-Mohtajj}. If the availability of the Zakat money for the coming year is guaranteed, Insha`Allah, it is more prudent to divide the surplus amongst the recipients by adding it to their monthly allowances or to increase the number of recipients in order to help other poor and needy people to cover their expenses without delaying the payment of Zakat money.
However, if the Zakat Fund is certain that it can`t afford the allowances of the poor for the coming year, and decided that delaying the distribution of the surplus amongst them is in their best interest, then there is no harm in doing that, because scholars have permitted the administrator of the Zakat funds to delay paying them for a necessity, as stated by Sheikh Al-Islam Zakaria Al-Ansari: "It is permissible for the administrator of the Zakat funds, who is appointed by the ruler, to delay their distribution in order to receive more funds since he isn`t obliged to give each small sum that he receives". [Asna' Al-Matalib]. And Allah Knows Best.

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Sheikh Abdulkareem al-Khasawneh
Vice chairman, Prof. Ahmad Hilayel
Dr. Hayel Abdulhafeez/ Member
Sheikh Sa`ied Hijjawi/ Member
Prof. Abdlnasser Abulbasal/ Member
Prof. Abdullah Al-Fawaaz/ Member
Islamic Judge Khaled Woraikat/ Member
Dr. Mohammad Khair al-Eesa/ Member
Dr. Mohammad al-Zou`bi/ Member
Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh/ Member

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Summarized Fatawaa

When does the time for the 'aqīqah lapse and pass?

All praise is due to Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
If the guardian was financially capable (mūsir) during the majority of the postnatal period (nifās) — which is sixty days — then the obligation of the 'aqīqah remains upon him until the child reaches the age of maturity (bulūgh). Once the child reaches maturity, the demand falls away from the father and those like him. At that point, it becomes Sunnah for the child himself to perform the 'aqīqah on his own behalf.
However, if the guardian was financially incapable (mu'sir) during the postnatal period, and then became financially capable after its expiry — that is, after sixty days — the 'aqīqah is no longer required of him. And Allah Almighty knows best.

If a father stops his daughter from getting married, is it permissible for her to conclude the marriage contract herself?

It is permissible for the father to stop his daughter from getting married if there was a lawful reason for that, and she isn`t allowed to conclude the marriage contract without her guardian. However, if her father denied her right in getting married for an unlawful reason, then she should go to court.

What is the ruling on wiping the front of the head beneath the ḥijāb, and is it permissible to wipe over the ḥijāb if it was put on while in a state of purification (wudu`)?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
It is permissible to wipe the front portion of the head (nāṣiyah) with the fingertips. It is likewise sufficient to place a wet hand over a head covering (ḥijāb), provided the moisture actually reaches the hair beneath it — if it does not, it does not suffice. A head covering is not treated in the same manner as leather socks (khuff) and may not be wiped over in lieu of the head itself.
Imām al-Nawawī, may Allah have mercy upon him, states in al-Majmūʿ (Vol.1/P.407): "If a person is wearing a turban and does not wish to remove it — whether for a valid reason or otherwise — he should wipe the entire front portion of the head... The same ruling applies to whatever a woman wears on her head. If, however, he confines himself to wiping over the turban without wiping any part of the head itself, this does not suffice — and there is no disagreement among us on this point." He further states: "A woman is like a man in the manner of wiping the head... She should insert her hand beneath her head covering so that the wiping falls upon the hair itself. If she places her wet hand over her head covering, our scholars stated: if the moisture does not reach the hair, it does not suffice her." And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the ruling on the ablution of one who touches women prohibited to him by a temporary prohibition (mahram bi-hurma mu'aqqata)?

It is prohibited to touch a woman who is temporarily prohibited (meaning one whom it becomes permissible to marry after the impediment is removed, such as the wife of a brother or paternal uncle). Touching her without a barrier invalidates ablution. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

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