Resolutions of Iftaa' Board



Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(22): “Marriage of Challenged Individual"

Date Added : 29-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(22) by the Board of Iftaa`, Research and Islamic Studies:    

“Marriage of Challenged Individuals“

Date: 20/11/1411 A.H, corresponding to 3/6/1991 A.D

 

We have received the following question:
What is the ruling of Sharia on the marriage of challenged individuals?
Answer:
All success is due to Allah, The Lord of The Worlds, and May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Having reviewed article (120) of the Jordanian Civil Status Law which grants a wife the right to ask for separation in case her husband became insane after the conclusion of their marriage contract, and the articles (113-119) which give her/him the right to ask for dissolution of marriage due to illnesses and diseases, the Board is of the view that it is permissible to confine the marriage of an individual afflicted with a disability, repulsive disease, or a disease that  could be transmitted to others or to his offspring, whether his disability was mental, physical, or psychological. It is also permissible to confine the marriage of an individual inflicted with a handicap, or was genetically handicapped, by obtaining a permission from a Sharia judge, by analogy to the ruling applied to the person inflicted with insanity, or idiocy, which undermines the very purpose of marriage itself.
The ruling in such cases depends on the judge`s decision and assessment of the best interest of both spouses, provided that each case is considered separately and after submitting a certified medical report from a specialized committee of expert doctors, showing that his disability or illness is incurable, and that he is likely to beget children inflicted with the same disabilities. In this case, the judge is entitled to stop this marriage before the conclusion of the contract to avoid any future harms since in this situation marriage loses its purpose, and causes embarrassment or harm to one of the spouses or to both of them. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice Mohammad Mohailan
The Grand Mufti of Jordan, Izzaldeen At-tamimi
Dr. Abdusallam Al-Abbadi
Dr. Umar Al-Ashkhar
Dr. Yaseen Daradkeh
Dr. Abdulahaleem Al-Ramahi
Sheikh Ratib Al-Zahir
Sheikh Ibrahim Khashan
Dr. Abdullahlim Ar-ramahi

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Summarized Fatawaa

How is Laylat al-Qadr observed?

Laylat al-Qadr is observed through various acts of worship and obedience, including:
● Performing obligatory, Sunnah, and voluntary prayers
● Reciting the Quran
● Increasing remembrance (dhikr) of Allah
● Giving charity
● Performing I‘tikaf
● Inviting others to Allah
It is also Sunnah to increase in supplication and humbly beseeching Him, Glorified and Exalted be He.

A woman made a wig for herself from her own [previously shed] hair, which she wears on her head after having lost her hair [due to hair loss]. Is this permissible?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Since the hair belongs to the woman herself, the wig can be removed during the obligatory ghusl (ritual bathing), and part of the head can still be wiped during wuḍū' (ablution), there is no sharī‘ah objection to making this wig — provided she does not appear wearing it in front of non-maḥram men (Any males outside a woman's immediate family whom she is permitted to marry under Islamic law), since it is not permissible for them to look at a woman's detached hair.
It is stated in Rawḍat aṭ-Ṭālibīn wa ‘Umdat al-Muftīn: "Whatever it is not permissible to look at while still attached [to the body] — such as the male genitalia, a free woman's forearm, the hair of her head, and a man's pubic hair, and similar matters — it remains unlawful to look at even after it has been detached [from the body], according to the more correct position (al-aṣaḥḥ)." And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

What is the ruling on someone who possesses gold with the intention of saving/hoarding it, and owns nothing else — is he obligated to sell a portion of it in order to pay the zakāh due on it?

All praise is due to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our master, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ.
Zakāh becomes immediately obligatory on cash, and likewise on gold — that which is not designated for a woman's personal adornment— once both reach the niṣāb (minimum threshold liable for zakah) and a full ḥawl (lunar year) has passed over them. It is not permissible to delay payment when it is genuinely possible to pay — meaning, when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both available. It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.2/p.129): "Zakāh is obligatory immediately once it becomes feasible to pay it, meaning when the wealth and the eligible recipients are both present."
The one paying zakāh must discharge the obligatory zakāh due on saved (hoarded) gold either from the gold itself, or from its equivalent monetary value, in the event that no other funds are available — since paying from the gold itself is the original default (al-aṣl). It becomes permissible to pay from other funds instead only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency, as stated in Asnā al-Maṭālib (Vol.1/p.366): "When a full ḥawl has elapsed on wealth other than trade goods... zakāh attaches to the actual asset itself (al-‘ayn), and the poor effectively become partners in it — even, for example, [becoming partners] in camels through the value of a sheep [owed as zakāh on them]... Paying from other wealth is permitted only because zakāh is built upon the principle of ease and leniency."
Accordingly: the one paying zakāh must discharge it either from the actual saved gold itself, or by selling a portion of the gold equal to the amount of zakāh owed. He may also borrow money to pay the zakāh, or pay the zakāh in installments before the ḥawl is complete [as an advance payment]. And Allah, the Exalted, knows best.

Is it obligatory to have the intention for each day of fasting, or is one intention sufficient for the whole month?

The intention is obligatory for each day of Ramadan because each day is an independent act of worship separate from the others.
The intention must be made at night before the break of dawn, as the Prophetﷺ said: "Whoever does not intend fasting at night, there is no fast for him." [An-Nasa’i] 
And he also said: "Whoever does not firmly resolve to fast before dawn, there is no fast for him." [At-Tirmidhi, Abu Dawood, and An-Nasa’i]
Whoever wakes up and eats Suhoor while mindful of fasting has made the intention. Likewise, one who firmly intends at any moment during the night to fast the next day has also fulfilled the intention.