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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(274): "Ruling on a Financial Donation Given to Orphans Fund Development Foundation"

Date Added : 01-05-2019

Resolution No.(274) (7/2019)By The Board of Iftaa', Researches anad Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on a Financial Donation Given to Orphans Fund Development Foundation"

Date: (19/Sha`ban/1440 AH), corresponding to (25/4/2019 AD).

 

Praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds and may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

During its fourth session held on the above date, the Board reviewed the letter (MA/1/1/3250) of His Excellency Mr. Hamdan Al-Faw`eer, director of the Orphans Fund Development Foundation, which reads as follows: "Back in 1981, the Foundation`s board-through resolution No.(6/81) - approved of Mr. Ameen Saleh Mar`ee`s wish to donate 100.000 JDs to be invested by the Orphans Fund Development Foundation (OFDF). This is provided that the annual profits in addition to whatever sums are added to the original donation should be spent in favor of poor Muslim orphans, needy students, the poor and other charity channels. This should also be done under the supervision of the Foundation`s board and the direct participation of Mr. Maree (Donor) himself, and , in case he dies, his son shall take over, and so on. Could you kindly consider discussing this matter with the Board of Iftaa` to provide us with answers to the following questions: Is the above sum (100.000 JDs) a donation or an endowment? Does the donor or his heirs have the right to participate in distributing the annual profits, yielded from investing the above sum, amongst the aforementioned categories who don`t have any funds at the (OFDF)? Is it permissible to consider the above sum amongst the Foundation`s revenues and the earnings made from investing that sum part of the profits added annually to the orphans deposits by the Foundation? Do the heirs of the donor have the right to reclaim the original sum (100.000 JDs)?

After deliberating, the Board decided what follows:

The above sum (100.000 JDs) takes the rulings of an endowment although it was termed a donation. This wording indicates holding money in perpetuity and spending its profits in accordance with the conditions of the donor, as reflected in resolution No.(6/81) issued by the (OFDF). This is in addition to the Sharia maxim, which states that meaning/content prevails over form/structure.

In conclusion, the above sums should be transferred to a party in charge of regulating endowments affairs where it invests the sums in question and spends their profits as stipulated by the endower. In addition, it isn`t permissible for the heirs or any of them to reclaim these sums (100.000 and profits made out of investing it), because once a property is endowed, it becomes Allah`s, not the endower`s. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

 

Chairperson of Iftaa` Board,

Grand Mufti of Jordan,

Dr. Mohammad Al-Khalayleh

Sheikh Abdulkareem AlKhasawneh/ Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Al-Hijjawi/ Member

Dr. Muhammad Khair Al-Issa/ Member

Prof. Adam Nooh/ Member

Judge. Khaled Al-Worikat/ Member

Dr. Ahmad Al-Hasanat/ Member

Dr. Mohammad Al-Zou`bi/ Member

 

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

Is it permissible to slaughter a single sheep with the combined intention of both the uḍḥiyyah and the 'aqīqah?

All praise is due to Allah, and may peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
According to Shaykh al-Islām Imam Ibn Ḥajar al-Haytamī, it is not permissible to combine the intention of the uḍḥiyyah and the 'aqīqah in a single animal, as each of the two has a distinct and separate cause that differs from the other.
However, Shaykh al-Islām Imam al-Ramlī permitted the combining of both intentions in a single animal — and this position offers a degree of latitude and ease. And Allah Almighty knows best.

Is it a condition for I‘tikaf to be performed in the mosque?

Yes, for I‘tikaf to be valid, it must be performed in a mosque. I‘tikaf is not valid if performed at home or elsewhere.

Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?

When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).

What is the ruling of Islamic Law regarding one who slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, and is it permissible to slaughter the ewe if one knows it is pregnant?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings upon our master, the Messenger of Allah.
If a person slaughters a ewe and it turns out to have been pregnant, the fetus becomes lawful (ḥalāl) by virtue of its mother's slaughter (tabaʿan li-ummihā).
It is stated in Mughnī al-Muḥtāj (Vol.6/P.158): "A fetus found dead [after the mother's slaughter], or found alive but in a state resembling that of a slaughtered animal [i.e., dying shortly after], becomes lawful — whether or not it had grown fur — provided it is found in the womb of a mother that was lawfully slaughtered, whether her slaughter was by cutting the throat, or by an arrow or hunting dog sent after her. This is based on the ḥadīth: 'The slaughtering of the fetus is [effected by] the slaughtering of its mother' [narrated by al-Tirmidhī, who graded it ḥasan, and by Ibn Ḥibbān, who graded it ṣaḥīḥ] — meaning that the slaughter which rendered the mother lawful renders the fetus lawful as well, by virtue of following her; and because the fetus is one of her constituent parts, and her slaughter renders lawful all of her parts."
This ruling differs, however, from the case of one who knows from the outset that the ewe is pregnant [and intends to sacrifice her specifically as the udḥiyah while pregnant] — in which case, according to the Shāfi'ī school, she does not fulfill the requirement of a valid sacrifice.
It is stated in Ḥāshiyat al-Bujayrimī 'alā al-Khaṭīb (Vol.4/P.335): "A pregnant animal does not fulfill the requirement [of a valid sacrifice], and this is the authoritative position (al-mu'tamad), because pregnancy diminishes the quality of the meat. As for why such an animal is nevertheless counted as complete [i.e., fully valid] in matters of zakāh, that is because the intent there is reproduction (nasl), not the quality of the meat.". And Allah, the Most High, knows best.

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