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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(231): "The Legitimacy of the Arab Agreement on Banning Human Cloning"

Date Added : 04-01-2017

Resolution No. (231) by the Board of Iftaa', Research and Islamic Studies:

"The Legitimacy of the Arab Agreement on Banning Human Cloning"

Date (22/Rabee' Al-Aoal /1438 AH) corresponding to (22/12/2016 AD)

 

All perfect praise be to Allah, The Lord of the Worlds, and may His peace and blessings be upon our Muhammad and upon all of his family and companions.

On its twelfth session held on the above date, the Board reviewed the question of his Excellency the Minister of Islamic  Awqaf, Islamic Affairs and Holy Places Dr. Wa`el Arabiat, and it reads as follows:

I have enclosed the memorandum of the General Secretariat of the Arab League No.(3/2984), (12/10/2016 AD), including the report and the recommendations issued by the concerned committee, during its sixth session held from the 28th to the 29th of Sept. 2016, as well as  representatives from the Ministries of Justice, Health, Interior and Official Religious Affairs in the Arab countries, in order to prepare the draft of the Arab agreement on banning human cloning. Could your Grace clarify the legal ruling on the articles of the aforementioned agreement? 

After prolonged deliberations, the Board decided what follows:

In light of scholar`s consensus that safeguarding human dignity from aggression or degradation is a legal obligation and the earlier resolutions issued by the Iftaa` Board and the Islamic Fiqh Academies, the articles of the aforementioned agreement don`t violate the rules of Islamic Law (Sharia). And Allah Knows Best.

 

Chairman of the Iftaa Board,  Sheikh Abdulkareem  Al-Khasawneh

Vice–chairman Prof. Ahmad Hilayel                Prof. Abed Al-Naser Abu Al-Basal           

Sheik Sa`eed Hijjawee / Member          Sheik Ghalib Al-Rbaba'h / Member

Dr. Muhammad Khaar Al-Aisaa' / Member                Judge Khaled Woraikat /Member

Dr. Muhammad Al-Khalyla / Member           Dr. Muhammad Al-Zouby / Member               

 

 

 

 

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

If the fasting of nine years has accumulated upon me, I wish to make them up by dividing them over several years, as it is difficult to fast them all in one year due to their large number. Consequently, expiation will be due on me. Is it permissible to pay the expiation after completing all the make-up fasts, even if it takes years?
 
 
 
 
 

If the fasting was broken due to a valid legal excuse, it is permissible to divide the make-up fasts over several years based on one’s ability. However, if a person passes away before completing the make-up fasts, the heirs must fast on their behalf or feed one needy person for each missed day.
If the fasting was broken without a valid excuse, one must hasten to make it up. Should the person die before completing the make-up fasts, the heirs must either fast or feed the needy on their behalf. As for the expiation, it is calculated after completing all the make-up fasts. And Allah Knows Best.
 
 
 
 
 

A man married a woman at the Islamic Centre in Brussels through a regular marriage contract. However, the husband left her for two years now and never provided her with financial support. Currently, she is staying in Amman, Jordan, and wants to remarry. Is her first marriage considered void and what should she do to remarry lawfully?

All perfect praise be to Allah, the Lord of the Worlds; may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
This issue is within the jurisdiction of the Islamic courts and they have the final say regarding the dissolution of the first marriage contract if there is valid ground for that. Therefore, her first marriage remains valid unless a court decision says otherwise. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

I took a car from the Orphans' Fund Development Institution; is there usury (Riba) involved in this transaction?

If the Sharia's conditions were met, then there is no harm in this. And Allah The Exalted Knows Best.

What is the ruling o associations (Whereas a person who have money buys a commodity for a person and  and gets a profit on it)?

It is permissible for a person to buy a commodity for someone's else and have a profit/loss on it

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