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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Resolution No.(306): "Ruling on Health Insurance"

Date Added : 13-07-2022

Resolution No.(306), By The Board of Iftaa', Researches and Islamic Studies:

"Ruling on Health Insurance"

Date: (25th of Jumada Al Oula, 1443 AH), corresponding to (30/12/2021 AD).

 

In the name of Allah, Most Gracious, Most Merciful

All perfect praise be to Allah, the Lord of the Worlds; may His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.

On its sixteenth meeting held on the above date, the Board of Iftaa`, Research, and Islamic Studies reviewed question No.(207233) sent to the electronic website of The General Iftaa` Department. It stated as follows: I work for a company of the private sector and we have optional health insurance. What is the ruling of Sharia on this health insurance taking into consideration that the company where I work deals with a conventional insurance company where an amount of 11JDs is deducted from an employee`s salary while the rest is covered by the employer?

After careful consideration, the Board decided what follows:

Health treatment is one of the necessities emphasized by the Maqasid of Sharia (Higher objectives of Sharia). Due to the progress accomplished in the field of medicine and the diversity of its techniques, meeting this need has become too expensive, so individuals couldn`t afford treatment and this negatively affected their health.

Since public need is ranked as a private necessity and the rules of Sharia rests on warding off harm and hardship, then it is permissible for an employee to have access to the services of medical insurance by virtue of his/her company having concluded a contract to that end with an insurance company. It is also permissible for an employee to include his/her dependents in those services as well. However, we advise employers to insure their employees with cooperative insurance companies that observe the standards of Sharia in this regard. And Allah The  Almighty Knows Best.

 Chairperson of Iftaa` Board

Grand Mufti of Jordan                     Dr. Abdulkareem al-Khasawneh

Dr. Mohammad al-Khalayleh

Dr. Mahmoud al-Sartawi/ Member         Dr. Majed al-Darawsheh/ Member

Sheikh Sa`eid Al-Hijjawi, Member

Judge Samer Al-Khobbaj/ Member               Prof. Adam Nooh Al-Qhodaat/Member

Prof. Amjad Rasheed/Member

Dr. Jamil Khatatbeh/Member                               Dr. Mohammad Younis Al-Zou`bi/ Member

Dr. Ahmad al-Hasanat/ Member

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

What is the ruling on praying in congregation at the mosque?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
Congregational prayer (Salat al-Jama‘ah) is a communal obligation (Fard Kifayah) for resident men regarding the performance of the prescribed (obligatory) prayers. For men, praying in congregation at the mosque is better than praying elsewhere, such as at home. On the authority of Abdullah bin Umar, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ said: 'Prayer in congregation is twenty-seven degrees more excellent than the prayer of a person alone' (Reported by Bukhari & Muslim). Furthermore, on the authority of Abu Hurayrah, the Messenger of Allah ﷺ said: 'Shall I not tell you that by which Allah erases sins and raises ranks?' They said, 'Of course, O Messenger of Allah.' He said: 'Performing wudu thoroughly despite difficulties, taking many steps toward the mosques, and waiting for the next prayer after the prayer; that is your Ribat (steadfastness)' (Narrated by Muslim).
 
As for a woman, her praying in congregation at home is better for her than in the mosque, according to the saying of our Master the Prophet ﷺ: 'Do not prevent your women from attending the mosques, but their homes are better for them' (Narrated by Abu Dawood). Young boys should be encouraged to attend the mosques and congregational prayers so they may become accustomed to them. And Allah the Exalted knows best.

What is the ruling on praying while wearing shoes?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.

There is no sin for a Muslim to perform prayer while wearing their sandals or shoes, provided they are free from any impurities (najasa). It was narrated that Anas bin Malik (may Allah be pleased with him) was asked: 'Did the Prophet ﷺ pray in his sandals?' He replied: 'Yes.'" (Related by Al-Bukhari).

It is stated in Fath al-Bari (Vol.1/P.494) by Ibn Hajar (may Allah have mercy on him): "Regarding the phrase 'praying in his sandals,' Ibn Battal said: 'This is understood to apply as long as there is no impurity on them; furthermore, this is considered one of the legal concessions (rukhas)." And Allah the Almighty knows best.

What is the waiting period ('Iddah) for a woman whose husband has passed away, and what is the ruling on her wearing gold?

Praise be to Allah, and peace and blessings be upon our Master, the Messenger of Allah.
 
The waiting period ('Iddah) for a woman whose husband has passed away is four months and ten days for one who is not pregnant. As for a pregnant woman, her waiting period lasts until she gives birth. It is obligatory for her to remain in the marital home, only leaving for a necessity. During this time, it is prohibited (Haram) to display any form of adornment on the body or clothing; this includes wearing kohl, gold, all types of perfume, and dyeing the hair. Likewise, it is prohibited to receive a direct marriage proposal or to marry during this period.
 
It was narrated by Umm 'Atiyyah that the Prophet ﷺ said: 'We were forbidden to mourn for a deceased person for more than three days, except for a husband, for whom the mourning period is four months and ten days. During this time, we were not to use kohl, nor wear perfume, nor wear dyed clothing except for garments made of 'Asb (coarsely dyed yarn). We were, however, granted a concession at the time of purification—when one of us bathed following her menses—to use a small amount of Kust (costus) or Azfar (fragrant substances). We were also forbidden from following funeral processions.' (Narrated by Al-Bukhari). And Allah the Exalted knows best."

Is a wife considered divorced if her husband refused to go to bed with her (for sexual intercourse) for two months?

A wife doesn`t get divorced no matter for how long her husband refuses to have sex with her, and she had better go to court.

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