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Resolutions of Iftaa' Board


Resolutions of Iftaa' Board

Date Added : 02-11-2015

 

Resolution No.(48): “Ruling on Publishing or Copying Books without Obtaining the Permission of their Author“

Date: 24/4/1422 AH corresponding to 15/7/2001 AD.

 

The Board has received the following question:

What is the ruling when some owners of bookshops, speed-duplication shops, and presses produce copies of books and sell them without any consideration to copyrights reserved to their authors and publishers?

Answer: All success is due to Allah.

The Board views that a book, which is the fruit of hard work and tremendous efforts of an author, is considered from the valuable benefits and a private property of his, and that none is allowed to reprint it or publish it, save with his permission. However, copying some pages for academic benefit is permissible, provided that the information is attributed to the original author.

Moreover, the author`s copyright is transferred to his eligible heirs after his passing away, but if he had no heirs, then it is permissible for the public to benefit from it because, in principle, knowledge is permissible. Therefore, printing his books and publishing them become permissible without obtaining his permission since spreading knowledge is amongst the public interests which people should be aware of.

Amongst the innovated books are the reproduced books of heritage and manuscripts. As the reproducers of these spared no effort in editing, comparing, classifying, explaining, adding inflections to words, providing headings and indices, and giving them an innovative shape, then they are considered their sole property, and none is allowed to copy or publish them, save with their permission.

Consequently, the act of copying and selling books, undertaken by the parties mentioned in the above question, without obtaining the permission of the author and abiding by the provisions of Sharia in this regard is unlawful and a violation to the rights of the author and the publisher. And Allah Knows Best.

 

Chairman of the Iftaa` Board, Chief Justice, Izz Al-Deen Al-TamimiDr. Mohammad Abu Yahia

Dr. Abdulsalam Al-Abbadi

Dr. Yousef Gheezaan

Dr. Wasif Al-Bakhri

Sheikh Saeid Hijjawi

Sheikh Na`eim Mojahid

Sheikh Mahmoud Shwayyaat

 

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Summarized Fatawaa

1-A young man whose father and grandfather are dead has died leaving a mother, two sisters and a brother. Do his paternal uncles inherit him?2- A man died leaving daughters, a wife, brothers, a mother or no mother. It is well known that the daughters inherit two thirds and the wife one eighth. To whom does the rest of the estate go and what is the evidence on that from the texts of Sharia?

All perfect praise be to Allah, the Lord of the worlds. I testify that there is none worthy of worship except Allah and that Muhammad, sallallahu ‘alayhi wa sallam, is His slave and Messenger.
1- The full brother or the paternal half-sibling disinherits the paternal uncles. The paternal half-sibling takes one sixth and because they are from the Asabah (Male relatives on the father`s side) of the deceased they take the rest of the estate. The proof of this is that Ibn ‘Abbas (May Allah Be Pleased with them) reported God’s Messenger as saying: "Give the shares to those who are entitled to them, and what remains over goes to the nearest male heir." [Agreed upon]. In this case, nothing is left to them.
2- The brothers take the rest of the deceased`s estate and the full brother disinherits the paternal half-sibling, and the proof of this is the aforementioned narration. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.

Is it incumbent on a husband to pay the alimony of his wife if she had left him and stayed at her parent`s without his permission?

When a wife leaves her house, and stays at her parent`s without asking her husband, she is considered a Nashiz(wife who refuses to abide by her husband’s orders), and so she doesn`t deserve an alimony.

I`m married to an American citizen who used to be married to a man in Mexico and filed for divorce there. It is worth pointing that in America she isn`t registered as married. When she arrived in Jordan, her lawyer called and told her that she got the divorce, and based on this we got married in Jordan. What is the ruling of Sharia on this?

All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
You haven`t mentioned whether this woman has converted to Islam or not. If she had embraced Islam and three menstrual cycles passed, but her first husband hasn`t converted to Islam, then her relationship with him is over. If you married her after this (Passing of three menstrual cycles and first husband not having embraced Islam) then your marriage is valid. However, if she didn`t convert to Islam then your marriage contract with her is invalid and you have to wait until she gets divorced by her first husband and observes Iddah, which is three menstrual cycles. Afterwards, you can conclude the marriage contract. We pray that Allah doesn`t hold you to account for what you have done because you thought she was divorced. We recommend that you seek Allah`s forgiveness as much as you can and do righteous deeds. We also advise you to marry a Muslim woman to preserve your and your children`s religion since Almighty Allah says {What means}: " Wed not idolatresses till they believe…" {Al-Baqarah, 221}. It is true that marrying a Kitabi (One who believes in a book of sacred scriptures and with whom a Muslim may marry in what is deemed a lawful marriage) is permissible, it involves great risks, as stated in the aforementioned verse. And Allah the Almighty knows best.

Is it permissible to fast on behalf of the dead who died owing missed fast to make up ?

His relative should fast on his behalf, and it is permissible for the guardians to give permission to non-relatives of the dead to fast on his behalf as well.

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