What is the ruling of Sharia on a Muslim woman who committed Zina with a Christian and became pregnant as a result?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Abortion is forbidden in Islam as it entails taking the life of a soul unjustly. Rather, it is one of the major sins; however, it is permissible only when there is well-established danger on the mother`s life; in which situation scholars gave priority to her life over that of the foetus, since this is, according to Sharia: "The lesser of two evils". In case a Muslim woman committed Zina (Adultery) with a Christian and got pregnant, if this did happen, then this question should be presented to the Iftaa` Committee with the presence of the questioner herself. She could also ask a reliable scholar face to face or via phone. If she gives birth to the baby, then he/she is a Muslim and takes the name of his mother; not the name of the man who was a reason for its conception. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
Is it permissible for a Christian man to embrace Islam in secret and is it permissible for a Muslim woman to marry him?
Praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
His embracing Islam in secret is between him and Allah; however, it isn`t permissible for a Muslim woman to marry him except after he declares his Islam and it is ascertained that he is sincere about that. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
What is the expiation for breaking fast due to being on a journey, or being sick, or being in a state of menstruation?
No expiation is due on the aforesaid categories, but they are obliged to make up for the missed fast. However, if any of them failed to do so while being able to, and the next Ramadhaan has come, then making up for those days is incumbent on him/her , and paying the ransom as well. And Allah Knows Best.
Is it permissible for the guardian, or the father of the child to hit the latter in order to teach him/her good manners?
It is permissible for the guardian to hit his/her child for teaching them good manners once they become ten years old provided that it is done mildly, harmlessly and without intimidation. Actually, such punishment is to be employed gradually i.e. after: asking, warning, and scolding. As for the teacher, he isn`t allowed to hit the student unless the latter`s father approves of it, and it is done according to necessity without intimidation, or harm.
