Is it permissible for a Muslim to slaughter an Aqeeqah on behalf of someone else, and offer it to him as a gift?
In principle, the guardian is the one who should offer the Aqeeqah (the sheep slaughtered on the seventh day from the child`s birth) because he is obliged to provide for the newborn, and it is impermissible for anyone else to slaughter it on his behalf unless with his consent. However, it is permissible for a person to offer the sheep, or its price as a gift to the guardian of the newborn, and then the latter can slaughter it, or deputies someone else to do that on his behalf.
It was found out that a man divorced his wife for the third time in 2005, but they continued cohabiting as man and wife. However, when they realized that what they were doing was unlawful, they came the Iftaa` Department in 2009 and were told that they can`t be together. What is the position of Sharia on this couple?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of the Worlds. May His peace and blessings be upon Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
Her Iddah* period starts after the third divorce. As for the continued cohabitation, it is unlawful because being ignorant about the rulings of Sharia while in Dar Al-Islam* is no valid excuse. If a baby came as the fruit of this unlawful consummation of marriage, then a judge of Sharia has the final say in this regard because lineage is a serious matter. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.
* ʿIddah: a specified period of time that must elapse before a Muslim widow or divorcee may legitimately remarry. The Qurʾān (Sura,2/verse,228) prescribes that a menstruating woman have three monthly periods before contracting a new marriage; the required delay for a nonmenstruating woman is three lunar months.
* Dar Al-Islam: designates a territory where Muslims are free to practice their religion, though this often implies the implementation of Islamic law, whereas Dar al-Harb represents those lands ruled by non-believers
What should a woman, who has given several births during different months of Ramadhaan, and didn`t make up for them in addition to forgetting the exact number of the days and years in which she had missed fasting, do?
She should make up the missed days of Ramadan after estimating their number, and paying the ransom (in food) due on each missed day that she had delayed making up. In addition, she is obliged to repay the ransom according to the number of years if she was able to fast before that time, but didn`t.
During Ramadan, a man had sexual intercourse with his wife. What is the expiation for that? And is he permitted to pay the expiation?
If a man has intercourse with his wife during the daytime in Ramadan, he must make up for that day and offer expiation. The expiation is fasting for two consecutive months. If he is unable to do so, he must feed sixty needy people. And Allah Knows Best.
