Is it incumbent on the fiancée to obey her fiancé?
When the woman settles in her husband`s house, it is incumbent on him to provide for her and it is incumbent on her to obey him. Before that, and if the marriage contract had been concluded, then she is lawfully his wife and thus she should abide by custom in treating him, but if the marriage contract hadn`t been concluded, then she should treat him as a non-Mahram (Marriageable).
Is it true that whatever is dry is pure even if there was impurity on it?
The impure material object does not soil (make impure) anything else unless the impurity is wet and transferable. But, if the impurity is dry or non-transferable, then there is no problem. Fuqaha has stated that: There is no disagreement between Muslim scholars that when a dry impurity touches something dry it does not make the latter impure.
Is it permissible for a wife to boycott (not to attend to his different needs) her husband?
It isn`t permissible for the woman to boycott her husband unless he is the reason behind that, and it is recommended that both spouses seek the advice of righteous people to make reconciliation.
I married a man and had two children; however, we got separated four years ago. In addition, my husband`s brother, paternal uncle of my children, has been providing for them ever since. In fact, he is an honest, well-behaved man. Is it permissible that we get married although his brother (My ex-husband) is still alive?
All perfect praise be to Allah the Lord of The Worlds. May His blessings and peace be upon our Prophet Mohammad and upon all his family and companions.
It is temporarily prohibited for a woman to marry her stepbrother. Therefore, once she receives Talaq Ba`in (Irrevocable divorce), she is allowed to marry her stepbrother, even if his brother (First husband) is still alive. And Allah The Almighty Knows Best.